Digestion Disorders

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Morphology of Flowering PlantsPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Digestive disorders appear in NEET as straightforward recall questions — but the trap is similar-term confusion. PEM (Protein-Energy Malnutrition) splits into kwashiorkor and marasmus; students routinely swap their defining features. Jaundice, vomiting, diarrhoea, constipation, and indigestion each have a specific mechanism that NEET tests through close-sounding distractors.

PEM — the two faces. Kwashiorkor results from adequate calorie intake but severe protein deficiency. Key signs: oedema (swollen belly), wasting of muscles with retained subcutaneous fat, skin lesions, and enlarged fatty liver. Marasmus results from total calorie-and-protein deficiency. Key signs: extreme emaciation, no oedema, loss of subcutaneous fat, thin limbs. The common confusion: attributing oedema to marasmus or claiming marasmus shows a fatty liver — both wrong (NCERT Class 11 Biology Chapter 16, page 312).

Jaundice is not a disease but a symptom — yellowing of skin, eyes, and urine due to elevated bilirubin from liver dysfunction or bile duct obstruction. NEET distractors may offer "excess bile secretion" or "excess HCl" as the cause; the correct anchor is impaired bilirubin metabolism.

Vomiting is a reflex controlled by the vomiting centre in the medulla oblongata. Diarrhoea involves abnormally frequent, loose stools from increased intestinal motility; the risk is dehydration and electrolyte loss. Constipation is the opposite — infrequent bowel movements with hardened faeces due to excessive water reabsorption in the colon. Indigestion (dyspepsia) results from inadequate enzyme secretion, anxiety, food poisoning, or overeating.

Watch out: NEET options often pair "constipation" with "reduced peristalsis" versus "excess water absorption." Both statements are correct descriptions, but the question may ask for the primary cause — answer based on how NCERT frames it (irregular bowel habits from dietary factors).

Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of kwashiorkor?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

Marasmus is caused by deficiency of:

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Jaundice is caused by:

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A patient shows extreme emaciation, thin limbs, no oedema, and complete loss of subcutaneous fat. The most likely diagnosis is:

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

A child presents with oedema of the abdomen, wasting muscles, but some retained body fat. The attending physician diagnoses:

MCQ 6Easy RecallPractice

The vomiting reflex is controlled by the:

MCQ 7Direct ApplicationPractice

Constipation is primarily associated with:

MCQ 8Concept TrapPractice

Statement I: Kwashiorkor and marasmus are both forms of PEM.

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A question states: "Match the following disorders with their primary features" and lists kwashiorkor, marasmus, jaundice, and constipation alongside features: oedema, emaciation with no oedema, yellowing of skin, hardened faeces.

  2. 2

    Required

    Correctly match each disorder to its defining feature.

  3. 3

    Concept

    Digestive disorders each have a specific, non-interchangeable defining feature. PEM splits into two subtypes distinguished by whether oedema is present. Jaundice is a bilirubin-mediated symptom. Constipation is a colonic water-reabsorption issue.

  4. 4

    Formula

    No formula required — this is a recall-and-match question. The governing knowledge is NCERT definitions.

  5. 5

    Substitution

    - Kwashiorkor → protein deficiency → oedema (swollen belly, retained fat) - Marasmus → total calorie-protein deficiency → extreme emaciation, no oedema - Jaundice → elevated bilirubin → yellowing of skin and eyes - Constipation → excess colonic water absorption → hardened faeces

  6. 6

    Calculation

    Direct matching, no arithmetic.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    Kwashiorkor — Oedema; Marasmus — Emaciation with no oedema; Jaundice — Yellowing of skin; Constipation — Hardened faeces.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    The high-frequency confusion here is swapping kwashiorkor and marasmus features. Students who remember "PEM = malnutrition" but not the subtype distinction will assign oedema to marasmus (wrong — marasmus has NO oedema) or claim marasmus has a fatty liver (wrong — fatty liver is kwashiorkor).

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "Which of the following is NOT a feature of kwashiorkor? (A) Oedema (B) Fatty liver (C) Complete loss of subcutaneous fat (D) Skin lesions." Answer: C — complete fat loss is marasmus, not kwashiorkor. ---

Before solving, remember these

Key Fact

Disorders

In the NEET syllabus; removed from current NCERT.

PEM: marasmus (deficiency of all nutrients) vs kwashiorkor (protein deficiency). Indigestion, constipation, diarrhoea, jaundice (liver — bilirubin elevated), vomiting (reflex from medulla).

-- NCERT Class 11 Biology, Ch. 16, p. 312

Formulas

Cardiac output

Volume of blood pumped per minute = heart rate × stroke volume. Normal ~5 L/min at rest.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
COcardiac outputL/min
HRheart rate/min
SVstroke volumemL

Valid when

  • At rest

Respiratory volumes and capacities

Defines lung volumes and their sums (capacities). TV ~500 mL, IRV ~3000 mL, ERV ~1100 mL, RV ~1200 mL.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
TVtidalmL
IRVinspiratory reservemL
ERVexpiratory reservemL
RVresidualmL

Valid when

  • Normal adult resting
  • Spirometry-measured (RV indirect)

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Trap

Lung capacity includes which volumes

Category: Similar Terms

Capacities are SUMS of volumes. VC = TV+IRV+ERV (excludes RV); TLC = VC+RV.

When it triggers

Question asks which capacity equals sum of which volumes.

How to avoid

VC excludes RV (residual is unmeasurable directly); TLC includes everything.

Trap

Oxyhaemoglobin curve shift direction

Category: Graph Interpretation

Right shift (lower affinity, more O2 release) caused by ↑CO2, ↑H+, ↑temperature, ↑2,3-BPG (Bohr effect). Left = opposite.

When it triggers

Question on tissue-vs-lung haemoglobin behaviour, exercise effect.

How to avoid

In tissues (high CO2/low pH/high T) → right shift → release O2. In lungs → left → bind O2.

Past Year Questions

57 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Given below are two statements : Statement I : The DNA fragments extracted from gel electrophoresis can be used in construction of recombinant DNA. Statement II : Smaller size DNA fragments are observed near anode while larger fragments are found near the wells in an agarose gel. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2025

The blue and white selectable markers have been developed which differentiate recombinant colonies from non- recombinant colonies on the basis of their ability to produce colour in the presence of a chromogenic substrate. Given below are two statements about this method: Statement I : The blue coloured colonies have DNA insert in the plasmid and they are identified as recombinant colonies. Statement II : The colonies without blue colour have DNA insert in the plasmid and are identified as recombinant colonies. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the op

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2025

Match List-I with List-II. List-I List-II A. Emphysema I. Rapid spasms in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid B. Angina Pectoris II. Damaged alveolar walls and decreased respiratory surface C. Glomerulonephritis III. Acute chest pain when not enough oxygen is reaching to heart muscle D. Tetany IV. Inflammation of glomeruli of kidney Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
3A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
4A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2025

Find the correct statement : (A) In human pregnancy, the major organ systems are formed at the end of 12 weeks. (B) In human pregnancy the major organ systems are formed at the end of 8 weeks. (C) In human pregnancy heart is formed after one month of gestation. (D) In human pregnancy, limbs and digits develop by the end of second month. (E) In human pregnancy the appearance of hair is usually observed in the fifth month. Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1A, C, D and E only
2A and E only
3B and C only
4B, C, D and E only
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Match List I with List II List I List II A. Expiratory capacity I. Expiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume B. Functional residual II. Tidal volume + Expiratory reserve volume capacity C. Vital capacity III. Tidal volume + Inspiratory reserve volume D. Inspiratory capacity IV. Expiratory reserve volume + Residual volume Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
2A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
3A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
4A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the nephron, the descending limb of loop of Henle is impermeable to water and permeable to electrolytes. Statement II : The proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple columnar brush border epithelium and increases the surface area for reabsorption. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the option given below :

1Both statement I and Statement II are true
2Both statement I and Statement II are false
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2024

Choose the correct statement given below regarding juxta medullary nephron.

1Juxta medullary nephrons are located in the columns of Bertini.
2Renal corpuscle of juxta medullary nephron lies in the outer portion of the renal medulla.
3Loop of Henle of juxta medullary nephron runs deep into medulla.
4Juxta medullary nephrons outnumber the cortical nephrons.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I: The cerebral hemispheres are connected by nerve tract known as corpus callosum. Statement II: The brain stem consists of the medulla oblongata, pons and cerebrum. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are produced. Statement II : Both bone marrow and thymus provide micro environments for the development and maturation of T-lymphocytes. In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Match List I with List II : List - I List – II A. Exophthalmic goiter I. Excess secretion of cortisol, moon face & hypergylcemia. B. Acromegaly II. Hypo-secretion of thyroid hormone and stunted growth. C. Cushing’s syndrome III. Hyper secretion of thyroid hormone & protruding eye balls. D. Cretinism IV. Excessive secretion of growth hormone. Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
2A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
3A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
4A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Axile placentation is observed in

1China rose, Beans and Lupin
2Tomato, Dianthus and Pea
3China rose, Petunia and Lemon
4Mustard, Cucumber and Primrose
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2023

Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

1Algal blooms caused by excess of organic matter in water improve water quality and promote fisheries
2Water hyacinth grows abundantly in eutrophic water bodies and leads to an imbalance in the ecosystem dynamics of the water body
3The amount of some toxic substances of industrial waste water increases in the organisms at successive trophic levels
4The micro-organisms involved in biodegradation of organic matter in a sewage polluted water body consume a lot of oxygen causing the death of aquatic organisms
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2023

Which of the following statements is correct?

1Biomagnification refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic levels.
2Presence of large amount of nutrients in water restricts ‘Algal Bloom’
3Algal Bloom decreases fish mortality
4Eutrophication refers to increase in domestic sewage and waste water in lakes.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Nephrons are of two types: Cortical & Juxta medullary, based on their relative position in cortex and medulla. Reason R: Juxta medullary nephrons have short loop of Henle whereas, cortical nephrons have longer loop of Henle. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
2A is true but R is false.
3A is false but R is true.
4Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Vas deferens receives a duct from seminal vesicle and opens into urethra as the ejaculatory duct. Statement Il: The cavity of the cervix is called cervical canal which along with vagina forms birth canal. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
2Statement I is correct but Statement II is false.
3Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
4Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Which of the following is not observed during apoplastic pathway ?

1Apoplast is continuous and does not provide any barrier to water movement
2Movement of water occurs through intercellular spaces and wall of the cells
3The movement does not involve crossing of cell membrane
4The movement is aided by cytoplasmic streaming
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : Statement I : The coagulum is formed of network of threads called thrombins. Statement II : Spleen is the graveyard of erythrocytes. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

In-situ conservation refers to:

1Conserve only extinct species
2Protect and conserve the whole ecosystem
3Conserve only high-risk species
4Conserve only endangered species
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Select the incorrect statement regarding synapses :

1Impulse transmission across a chemical synapse is always faster than that across an electrical synapse.
2The membranes of presynaptic and postsynaptic neurons are in close proximity in an electrical synapse.
3Electrical current can flow directly from one neuron into the other across the electrical synapse.
4Chemical synapses use neurotransmitters
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

Match List-I with List-II with respect to methods of Contraception and their respective actions. List-I List-II (a) Diaphragms (i) Inhibit ovulation and Implantation (b) Contraceptive Pills (ii) Increase phagocytosis of sperm within Uterus (c) Intra Uterine Devices (iii) Absence of Menstrual cycle and ovulation following parturition (d) Lactational Amenorrhea (iv) They cover the cervix blocking the entry of sperms Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1(a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
2(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (iii), (d) - (ii)
3(a) - (iv), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii), (d) - (iii)
4(a) - (ii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2021

Assertion (A): A person goes to high altitude and Choose the correct answer from the options given experiences 'altitude sickness' with symptoms like below breathing difficulty and heart palpitations. (a) (b) (c) (d) Reason (R): Due to low atmospheric pressure at

1(ii) (iii) (i) (iv) high altitude, the body does not get sufficent
2(iv) (i) (iii) (ii) oxygen.
3(iii) (iv) (i) (ii) In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below
4(i) (ii) (iv) (iii) (1) (A) is false but (R) is true
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê øÈÁŸ∞–

1≈UÒÁŸŸ, ⁄U Á¡Ÿ, Ã‹Ò •ÊÁŒ ∑§ ¡◊Ê „ÊŸ ∑§ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ •Ã —∑§Êc∆U 93. Identify the incorrect statement. ª„⁄ U ⁄ Uª ∑§Ë „Ê ÃË „Ò– (1) Due to deposition of tannins, resins, oils etc.,
2• ×∑§Êc∆U ¡‹ ∑§Ê øÊ‹Ÿ Ÿ„Ë ∑§⁄UÃË, ¬⁄UãÃÈ ÿÊ ÁòÊ∑§ heart wood is dark in colour. ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ¬˝ŒÊŸ ∑§⁄UÃË „Ò– (2) Heart wood does not conduct water but gives mechanical support.
3⁄U‚ŒÊM§ ¡«∏ ‚ ¬ûÊË Ã∑§ ¡‹ ∑ § øÊ‹Ÿ ◊ •ÊÒ⁄U πÁŸ¡Ê (3) Sapwood is involved in conduction of water ∑ § øÊ‹Ÿ ◊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ê ÃË „Ò– and minerals from root to leaf.
4⁄U‚ŒÊM§ ‚’‚ ÷ËÃ⁄UË ÁmÃËÿ∑§ ŒÊM§ „Ê ÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ÿ„ (4) Sapwood is the innermost secondary xylem •¬ ˇÊÊ∑Χà „À∑ § ⁄ Uª ∑§Ë „Ê ÃË „Ò– and is lighter in colour. H3 22 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

Identify the correct statement with reference to human digestive system. 96. ◊ÊŸfl ¬ÊøŸ à òÊ ‚ ‚ ŒÁ÷¸Ã ‚„Ë ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ –

1Vermiform appendix arises from duodenum. (1) ∑ΧÁ◊M§¬ ¬Á⁄U‡Ê Á ∑§Ê ª˝„áÊË ‚ ©à¬ÛÊ „Ê ÃÊ „Ò–
2Ileum opens into small intestine. (2) ˇÊÈŒ˝Ê òÊ ¿UÊ ≈UË •Ê à ◊ πÈ‹ÃÊ „Ò–
3Serosa is the innermost layer of the alimentary canal. (3) Á‚⁄UÊ ‚Ê •Ê„Ê⁄U ŸÊ‹ ∑§Ê ‚’‚ •ãŒ⁄U flÊ‹Ë ¬⁄Uà „Ê ÃË „Ò–
4Ileum is a highly coiled part. (4) ˇÊÈŒ˝Ê òÊ •àÿÊÁœ∑§ ∑È §«UÁ‹Ã ÷ʪ „Ê ÃÊ „Ò–
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

ÁŸêŸ Sà ÷Ê ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – 98. Match the following columns and select the correct option. Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II Column - I Column - II (a) ¬ËÿÍ ª˝ ÁÕ (i) ª˝ fl‚ ⁄UÊ ª (a) Pituitary gland (i) Grave’s disease (b) ÕÊÿ⁄UÊÚß«U ª˝ ÁÕ (ii) «UÊÿÊÁ’≈UË¡ ◊ Á‹≈U‚ (b) Thyroid gland (ii) Diabetes mellitus (c) •ÁœflÎÄ∑§ ª˝ ÁÕ (iii) «UÊÿÊÁ’≈UË¡ ßã‚ËÁ¬«U‚ (c) Adrenal gland (iii) Diabetes insipidus (d) •ÇãÿʇÊÿ (iv) ∞«UË‚Ÿ ⁄UÊ ª (d) Pancreas (iv) Addison’s disease (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(ii) (i) (iv) (iii) (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2(iv) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

Match the following columns and select the 103. ÁŸêŸ Sà ÷Ê ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – correct option. Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II Column - I Column - II (a) ÿÍÕ, ’„È„Ê⁄UË ¬Ë«U∑§ (i) ∞S≈ UÁ⁄Uÿ‚ (a) Gregarious, polyphagous (i) Asterias pest (b) √ÿS∑§Ê ◊ •⁄UËÿ ‚◊Á◊Áà ∞fl (ii) Á’ë¿ÈU (b) Adult with radial (ii) Scorpion ‹Êflʸ ◊ Ám¬Ê‡fl¸ ‚◊Á◊Áà symmetry and larva (c) ¬ÈSà »È§å»È§‚ (iii) ≈UËŸÊ å‹ÊŸÊ with bilateral symmetry (d) ¡Ëfl‚ ŒËÁåà (iv) ‹Ê ∑§S≈UÊ (c) Book lungs (iii) Ctenoplana (d) Bioluminescence (iv) Locusta (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (a) (b) (c) (d)
2(i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (1) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
3(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
4(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 11 Biology Chapter 16, p.312

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