Male Reproductive System

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Anatomy of Flowering PlantsPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

The trap that costs marks: confusing spermatogenesis output with oogenesis output, and misremembering how long spermatogenesis actually takes. One primary spermatocyte yields four functional spermatozoa — not one, not two. And the entire cycle takes approximately 64 days, not hours or a few days.

Male reproductive anatomy — the functional chain:

The testes are located in the scrotum (2–2.5°C below core body temperature — essential for spermatogenesis). Each testis contains 250 lobules, each lobule contains 1–3 seminiferous tubules. The seminiferous tubules are the site of sperm production. Between the tubules, Leydig cells (interstitial cells) secrete testosterone.

Inside each seminiferous tubule: spermatogonia (diploid, 2n) line the basement membrane. Sertoli cells provide nutrition, support, and secrete inhibin (feedback to FSH).

Spermatogenesis — the sequence:

Spermatogonium (2n) → primary spermatocyte (2n, after mitosis) → two secondary spermatocytes (n, after meiosis I) → four spermatids (n, after meiosis II) → four spermatozoa (after spermiogenesis).

Key facts: all four products are functional gametes. The process takes ~64 days. Spermiogenesis (spermatid → spermatozoon) involves acrosome formation, tail development, and mitochondrial sheath arrangement. Spermiation is the release of mature sperm from Sertoli cells into the lumen.

Accessory glands: Seminal vesicles (fructose for energy), prostate (alkaline fluid to neutralise vaginal acidity), bulbourethral/Cowper's glands (lubrication).

Hormonal control: GnRH → FSH (acts on Sertoli cells → spermatogenesis support) + LH (acts on Leydig cells → testosterone). Testosterone is essential for spermatogenesis and secondary sexual characteristics.

Watch out: NEET frequently tests the 64-day duration, the four-functional-sperm output, and the distinction between spermiogenesis (morphological maturation) and spermiation (release).


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which cells in the testis secrete testosterone?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

How many functional spermatozoa are produced from one primary spermatocyte?

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

The approximate duration of spermatogenesis in human males is:

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

Spermiogenesis refers to:

MCQ 5Easy RecallPractice

The scrotum maintains a temperature lower than the body core by approximately:

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

Inhibin is secreted by which of the following cells and acts on which pituitary hormone?

MCQ 7Direct ApplicationPractice

A seminiferous tubule is lined by two types of cells. The germ cells and the non-dividing cells that nourish developing sperm are called:

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

During spermatogenesis, a secondary spermatocyte has which chromosome complement and ploidy?

Worked Example

Pattern: Spermatogenesis output and comparison questions (anchored to NEET pattern: unit bundle — recall and direct_application on gametogenesis)

  1. 1

    Given

    A human male has 100 primary spermatocytes that enter meiosis in the seminiferous tubules.

  2. 2

    Required

    How many functional spermatozoa will be produced? How does this compare to the output if 100 primary oocytes completed oogenesis?

  3. 3

    Concept

    Spermatogenesis: each primary spermatocyte → 4 functional spermatozoa (symmetric division). Oogenesis: each primary oocyte → 1 functional ovum + 3 polar bodies (asymmetric division).

  4. 4

    Formula/Rule

    - Sperm count = number of primary spermatocytes × 4 - Ova count = number of primary oocytes × 1

  5. 5

    Substitution

    - Sperm = 100 × 4 - Ova = 100 × 1

  6. 6

    Calculation

    - Sperm = 400 - Ova = 100 Note: The multipliers (4, 1) are exact counting integers and do not involve sig-fig considerations.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    400 functional spermatozoa from 100 primary spermatocytes. 100 functional ova (with 300 polar bodies) from 100 primary oocytes.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Confusing the two: saying oogenesis also produces 4 functional gametes (it does not — asymmetric cytokinesis ensures only 1 ovum retains the bulk cytoplasm). This is trap trap: spermatogenesis vs oogenesis — the similar-term confusion between the two gametogenic pathways.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "If 50 spermatogonia each undergo one round of mitotic division to become primary spermatocytes, how many spermatozoa are ultimately produced?" Answer: 50 spermatogonia → 50 primary spermatocytes (one mitosis each, but note: in the stem it says they BECOME primary spermatocytes, i.e., 50 primary spermatocytes) → 50 × 4 = 200 spermatozoa. ---

Before solving, remember these

Testes (in scrotum, ~2-3 °C cooler) — seminiferous tubules with Sertoli cells (nurse) + Leydig cells (testosterone). Epididymis → vas deferens → ejaculatory duct → urethra. Spermatogenesis: spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte → meiosis → spermatozoa. ~60-65 days.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 2, p. 28

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

Hormonal: pills, implants. Barrier: condom, diaphragm. IUD: Cu releasing (CuT), hormonal (LNG-20). Surgical: vasectomy/tubectomy.

When it triggers

Question asks which category a specific method falls in.

How to avoid

Map by mechanism: hormone → pill/implant; physical block → barrier; uterine → IUD; permanent → surgical.

Category: Negative Marking

Fertilisation in ampulla; cleavage during journey; implantation occurs ~6-7 days after fertilisation in uterine endometrium.

When it triggers

Question on day of implantation, location of fertilisation.

How to avoid

Fertilisation = ampulla. Implantation = day 6-7 post-fertilisation in uterus.

Category: Similar Terms

FSH dominant follicular phase; LH surge triggers ovulation Day 14; progesterone dominant in luteal phase.

When it triggers

Question gives day or phase and asks dominant hormone.

How to avoid

Follicular = FSH. Day 14 = LH peak. Luteal = progesterone (corpus luteum).

Category: Similar Terms

Spermatogenesis: 1 spermatogonium → 4 sperm (all functional). Oogenesis: 1 oogonium → 1 functional ovum + 3 polar bodies.

When it triggers

Question on number of functional gametes per primary cell.

How to avoid

Sperm: 4. Ovum: 1 (with 3 polar bodies discarded).

Root cause: term confusion

Correction

Oogenesis yields ONLY 1 functional ovum + 3 (or 1 + 2) polar bodies that degenerate. Asymmetric cytokinesis preserves cytoplasm in the egg.

Past Year Questions

48 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Consider the following : A. The reductive division for the human female gametogenesis starts earlier than that of the male gametogenesis. B. The gap between the first meiotic division and the second meiotic division is much shorter for males compared to females. C. The first polar body is associated with the formation of the primary oocyte. D. Luteinizing Hormone (LH) surge leads to disintegration of the endometrium and onset of menstrual bleeding. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1B and C are true
2A and B are true
3A and C are true
4B and D are true
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Both wind and water pollinated flowers are not very colourful and do not produce nectar. Reason (R) : The flowers produce enormous amount of pollen grains in wind and water pollinated flowers. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A is false but R is true
2Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
3Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
4A is true but R is false
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In a floral formula stands for zygomorphic nature of the flower, and G stands for inferior ovary. Statement II: In a floral formula stands for actinomorphic nature of the flower and G stands for superior ovary. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Identify the set of correct statement: A. The flowers of Vallisneria are colourful and produce nectar. B. The flowers of waterlily are not pollinated by water. C. In most of water-pollinated species, the pollen grains are protected from wetting. D. Pollen grains of some hydrophytes are long and ribbon like. E. In some hydrophytes, the pollen grains are carried passively inside water. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1C, D and E only
2A, B, C and D only
3A, C, D and E only
4B, C, D and E only
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2024

Identify the correct description about the given figure:

1Wind pollinated plant inflorescence showing flowers with well exposed stamens.
2Water pollinated flowers showing stamens with mucilaginous covering.
3Cleistogamous flowers showing autogamy.
4Compact inflorescence showing complete autogamy
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R : Assertion A : FSH acts upon ovarian follicles in female and Leydig cells in male. Reason R : Growing ovarian follicles secrete estrogen in female while interstitial cells secrete androgen in male human being. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3A is true but R is false
4A is false but R is true
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A : Amniocentesis for sex determination is one of the strategies of Reproductive and Child Health Care Programme. Reason R : Ban on amniocentesis checks increasing menace of female foeticide. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
2A is true but R is false.
3A is false but R is true.
4Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2023

Which of the following statements are correct regarding female reproductive cycle? A. In non-primate mammals cyclical changes during reproduction are called oestrus cycle. B. First menstrual cycle begins at puberty and is called menopause. C. Lack of menstruation may be indicative of pregnancy. D. Cyclic menstruation extends between menarche and menopause. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1A and B only
2A, B and C only
3A, C and D only
4A and D only
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R. Assertion A: Endometrium is necessary for implantation of blastocyst. Reason R: In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates that causes disintegration of endometrium. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
2A is true but R is false.
3A is false but R is true.
4Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

Identify the incorrect statement related to Pollination :

1Moths and butterflies are the most dominant pollinating agents among insects
2Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants
3Pollination by wind is more common amongst abiotic pollination
4Flowers produce foul odours to attract flies and beetles to get pollinated
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Cleistogamous flowers are invariably autogamous Statement II : Cleistogamy is disadvantageous as there is no chance for cross pollination In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation. Statement II : Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2021

Match List-I with List-II.

1(iv) (ii) (i) (iii)
2(iv) (i) (iii) (ii)
3(iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
4(ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2021

Which of the following statements of incorrect? 148. Match List-I with List-II.

1Oxidation-reduction reactions produce proton List-I List-II gradient in respiration (a) Protein (i) C = C double bonds
2During aerobic respiration, role is oxygen is (b) Unsaturated (ii) Phosphodiester limited to the terminal state fatty acid bonds (c) Nucleic acid (iii) Glycosidic bonds
3In ETC (Electron Transport Chain), one molecule of NADH + H+ gives rise to 2 ATP molecules, (d) Polsyaccharide(iv) Peptide bonds and one FADH gives rise to 3 ATP molecules 2 (a) (b) (c) (d)
4ATP is synthesized through complex V (1) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2021

Which of the following is not a step in Multiple (4) (b) and (c) only Ovulation Embryo Transfer Technology (MOET)?

1Fertilized eggs are transferred to surrogate Answer (4) mothers at 8-32 cell stage 197. Following are the statements about prostomium of
2Cow is administered hormone having LH like earthworm. activity for super ovulation (a) It serves as a covering for mouth.
3Cow yields about 6-8 eggs at a time (b) It helps to open cracks in the soil into which it
4Cow is fertilized by artifical insemination can crawl.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

¬ÊŒ¬ ∑§Ê fl„ ÷ʪ ∑§ÊÒŸ-‚Ê „Ò Á¡‚◊ ŒÊ ¬Ë…∏Ë - ∞∑§ ¬Ë…∏Ë 92. The plant parts which consist of two generations - one within the other : ŒÍ‚⁄ U ∑ § •ãŒ⁄U „Ê ÃË „Ò? (a) Pollen grains inside the anther (a) ¬⁄Uʪ∑§Ê ‡Ê ∑ § •ãŒ⁄U ¬⁄Uʪ∑§áÊ (b) ŒÊ Ÿ⁄U ÿÈÇ◊∑§Ê flÊ‹Ë • ∑ȧÁ⁄Uà ¬⁄Uʪ∑§áÊ (b) Germinated pollen grain with two male gametes (c) »§‹ ∑ § •ãŒ⁄U ’Ë¡ (d) ’Ë¡Êá«U ∑ § •ãŒ⁄U ÷Í˝áÊ-∑§Ê (c) Seed inside the fruit

1(a) •Ê⁄Ò U (d) (d) Embryo sac inside the ovule
2∑ §fl‹ (a) (1) (a) and (d)
3(a), (b) •ÊÒ⁄U (c) (2) (a) only
4(c) •ÊÒ⁄U (d) (3) (a), (b) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

ÿÊÒŸ ‚ øÁ⁄Uà ⁄UÊ ªÊ ∑ § ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – 99. Select the option including all sexually transmitted

1∑Ò §‚⁄U, AIDS, Á‚Á»§Á‹‚ diseases.
2‚È¡Ê∑§, Á‚Á»§Á‹‚, ¡ŸÁŸ∑§ ¬Á⁄U‚¬¸ (1) Cancer, AIDS, Syphilis
3‚È¡Ê∑§, ◊‹ Á⁄UÿÊ, ¡ŸÁŸ∑§ ¬Á⁄U‚¬¸ (2) Gonorrhoea, Syphilis, Genital herpes
4AIDS, ◊‹ Á⁄UÿÊ, »§Êß‹ Á⁄UÿÊ (3) Gonorrhoea, Malaria, Genital herpes (4) AIDS, Malaria, Filaria
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

ÁŸêŸ ⁄UÊ ªÊ ∑§Ê ©Ÿ∑ § ¬ÒŒÊ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ ¡ËflÊ ∑ § ‚ÊÕ Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U 109. Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option. ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – Column - I Column - II Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II (a) ≈UÊß»§ÊÚß«U (i) flÈø ⁄ UÁ⁄UÿÊ (a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria (b) ãÿÍ◊Ê ÁŸÿÊ (ii) å‹Òí◊Ê Á«Uÿ◊ (b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium (c) »§Êß‹ Á⁄U∞Á‚‚ (iii) ‚ÊÀ◊Ê Ÿ ‹Ê (c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella (d) ◊‹ Á⁄UÿÊ (iv) „Ë◊Ê Á»§‹‚ (d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (1) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2(i) (iii) (ii) (iv) (2) (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
3(iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (3) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
4(ii) (i) (iii) (iv) (4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

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