Microbes Sewage Biogas

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Cell: The Unit of LifePYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Sewage treatment and biogas production are two industrial applications where microbes do work that no chemical process can replicate cheaply. NEET questions on this micro-topic test precise recall of organism names, process stages, and the gas composition of biogas — terminology precision is the scoring lever here.

Primary effluent treatment (PET) is physical: screening, grit removal, sedimentation. No microbes yet. The settled solids form primary sludge.

Secondary effluent treatment (SET) is biological. The supernatant from PET enters aeration tanks where aerobic heterotrophic microbes (bacteria, fungi) oxidise dissolved organic matter, forming flocs — masses of bacteria + fungal filaments. This activated-sludge process reduces BOD (Biochemical Oxygen Demand) substantially. A small portion of activated sludge is pumped back as inoculum; the rest passes to an anaerobic sludge digester.

In the anaerobic digester, facultative and obligate anaerobes (notably methanogenic archaebacteriaMethanobacterium) decompose organic matter, producing a mixture of gases: CH₄, CO₂, H₂S. The effluent after secondary treatment meets discharge standards for BOD.

Biogas plants exploit the same methanogenic process on cattle dung (gobar). The design promoted by KVIC uses a floating gas-holder dome. The gas produced — primarily methane (50–70%) with CO₂ (25–45%) — is combustible and used as fuel. Key point: the organisms responsible are archaebacteria (methanogens), NOT ordinary anaerobic bacteria.

A common NEET distractor conflates flocs (aerobic stage) with sludge (anaerobic stage), or misattributes biogas production to Pseudomonas or E. coli instead of methanogens.

(Reference: NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 9, page 206)


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

The primary treatment of sewage involves:

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

During secondary sewage treatment, the decrease in BOD of the effluent is achieved by:

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Flocs formed during activated sludge treatment are composed of:

MCQ 4Easy RecallPractice

Which group of microorganisms is primarily responsible for the production of biogas from cattle dung?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

In the biogas plant design promoted by KVIC (Khadi and Village Industries Commission), the gas produced is collected in a:

MCQ 6Easy RecallPractice

The major gaseous components of biogas are:

MCQ 7Direct ApplicationPractice

A portion of the activated sludge from the aeration tank is pumped back into the system. The purpose of this step is to:

MCQ 8Direct ApplicationPractice

After secondary treatment, the remaining sludge is transferred to an anaerobic digester. Which of the following correctly describes the process occurring in this digester?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A municipal sewage treatment plant receives raw sewage. The plant uses primary treatment followed by secondary biological treatment with activated sludge, then sends excess sludge to an anaerobic digester.

  2. 2

    Required

    Identify the correct sequence: (i) type of organisms in the aeration tank, (ii) what the recycled sludge provides, (iii) the organisms responsible for gas production in the digester.

  3. 3

    Concept

    Sewage treatment proceeds in defined stages with different microbial communities at each stage. The aeration tank (secondary treatment) uses aerobic heterotrophs. The anaerobic digester uses methanogens (archaebacteria).

  4. 4

    Formula

    No mathematical formula applies — this is a process-recall question.

  5. 5

    Substitution

    (i) Aeration tank → aerobic heterotrophic bacteria and fungi (forming flocs) (ii) Recycled sludge → microbial inoculum for fresh effluent (iii) Anaerobic digester → methanogenic archaebacteria (*Methanobacterium*)

  6. 6

    Calculation

    No calculation required. The answer is derived from matching organisms to their correct process stage.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    (i) Aerobic heterotrophs (bacteria + fungi) (ii) Inoculum (starter culture of decomposers) (iii) Methanogenic archaebacteria

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Confusing the aeration tank organisms (aerobic heterotrophs) with the digester organisms (anaerobic methanogens). A frequent distractor attributes methane production to *Pseudomonas* or general "anaerobic bacteria" — the specific answer NEET expects is **methanogens/archaebacteria**.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "In a sewage treatment plant, the biological treatment step uses _____ in aeration tanks, while the sludge digester relies on _____. Name the domain of life to which the gas-producing organisms belong." Expected answer: Aerobic heterotrophic microbes (bacteria + fungi); methanogenic organisms; Domain Archaea. ---

Before solving, remember these

Sewage treatment: primary (sedimentation), secondary (aerobic — flocs of microbes; BOD reduces), tertiary. Biogas: methanogens (Methanobacterium) anaerobic digestion of cattle dung → CH4 + CO2 + H2 + H2S.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 9, p. 206

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

ELISA = screening (cheap, sensitive); Western blot = confirmation. CD4+ T cell count tracks disease progression.

When it triggers

Question on which test confirms HIV vs which monitors progression.

How to avoid

ELISA first (screening); Western blot confirms; CD4+ count = monitoring marker (<200/µL = AIDS).

Category: Similar Terms

Active: own immune response (vaccination, infection). Passive: pre-formed antibodies received (colostrum, antiserum injection).

When it triggers

Question on immunity type from vaccination, antiserum, mother's milk.

How to avoid

Active = body produces; passive = body receives. Vaccination → active. Mother's milk → passive (IgA).

Past Year Questions

29 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3A is correct but R is not correct
4A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2023

Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

1It exposes harmful recessive genes but are eliminated by selection.
2Elimination of less desirable genes and accumulation of superior genes takes place due to it.
3It decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding.
4It decreases homozygosity.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

1Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
2Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
3Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
4Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Match the following columns and select the correct option. 107. ÁŸêŸ Sà ÷Ê ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – Column - I Column - II Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (a) ’Ë≈UË ∑§¬Ê‚ (i) ¡ËŸ ÁøÁ∑§à‚Ê (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (b) ∞«UËŸÊ ‚ËŸ Á«U∞◊ËŸ ¡ (ii) ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§Ëÿ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ deaminase ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë deficiency (c) •Ê⁄U.∞Ÿ.∞.•Ê߸ (iii) HIV ‚ ∑˝§◊áÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÃÊ (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV ‹ªÊŸÊ infection (d) ¬Ë.‚Ë.•Ê⁄U. (iv) ’ÒÁ‚‹‚ (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus ÕÈÁ⁄ UÁ¡ÁŸÁ‚‚ thuringiensis (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

ÁŸêŸ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ flÊÁ„Ã◊‹ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § Á‹∞ •flÊÿflËÿ •ʬ ∑§ 120. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ? ‚ ¬ÊÁøòÊ ◊ «UÊ‹Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?

1Activated sludge (1) ‚ Á∑˝§ÿËà •ʬ ∑§
2Primary sludge (2) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ •ʬ ∑§
3Floating debris (3) ÃÒ⁄Uà „È∞ ∑ͧ«∏ -∑§⁄U∑§≈U
4Effluents of primary treatment (4) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § ’Á„—dÊfl
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Which of the following statements about inclusion 128. • ÃÁfl¸c≈U ∑§ÊÿÊ ∑ § Áfl ÿ ◊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ bodies is incorrect ? ª‹Ã „Ò?

1These represent reserve material in (1) ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ ÁŸÁøÃ ¬ŒÊÕ¸ ∑§Ê √ÿÄà ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – cytoplasm.
2ÿ Á∑§‚Ë Á¤ÊÀ‹Ë ‚ ÁÉÊ⁄ U Ÿ„Ë „Ê Ã – (2) They are not bound by any membrane.
3These are involved in ingestion of food (3) ÿ πÊl ∑§áÊÊ ∑ § • ê˝¸„áÊ ◊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ê Ã „Ò – particles.
4ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ Sflà òÊ M§¬ ◊ „Ê Ã „Ò – (4) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑ § ‚ Œ÷¸ ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞– 131. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

1÷˝ÍáÊ ◊ÊÃÊ ‚ ∑ȧ¿U ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝Êåà ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò, ÿ„ ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ (1) Foetus receives some antibodies from ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò– mother, it is an example for passive
2¡’ ¬⁄U¬Ê Ë ∑§Ê ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U (¡ËÁflà •ÕflÊ ◊ÎÃ) ¬˝Á០∑ § immunity. ‚ ¬∑¸§ ◊ •ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑ § ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U ◊ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ©à¬ÛÊ (2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) „Ê Ã „Ò – ß‚ ““‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
3¡’ ’Ÿ ’ŸÊ∞ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝àÿˇÊ M§¬ ‚ ÁŒ∞ ¡Êà „Ò , ß‚ (3) When ready-made antibodies are directly ““ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
4‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ¡ÀŒË „Ê ÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Íáʸ ¬˝ÁÃÁ∑˝§ÿÊ Œ ÃË (4) Active immunity is quick and gives full „Ò– response.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Diseases, immunity, AIDS, cancer, drugs, animal husbandry, microbes

RecallMedium

Common distractors

active vs passive immunity confusion

Vaccination triggers the body to produce its own antibodies (active immunity), but students interpret 'given externally' as passive. Passive immunity (antiserum, colostrum IgA from mother's milk) provides preformed antibodies with no immune response from the recipient. Questions that pair vaccination, antiserum, and colostrum expose students who cannot classify by mechanism rather than by route of administration.

vector vs causative agent confusion

Questions name both the vector (organism that transmits) and the causative agent (organism that causes disease) as answer options. Students who associate 'Anopheles = malaria' select Anopheles as the causative agent rather than recognising it as the vector; Plasmodium is the causative agent. The distinction -- vector transmits, causative agent infects -- is lost when both options are plausible from partial recall.

microbe product pair swap

Match-list questions pair 10 or more microbe names with industrial or household products. Students confuse Lactobacillus (lactic acid fermentation, curd) with Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ethanol, bread), or Aspergillus niger (citric acid) with Clostridium butylicum (butyric acid). Partial recall of one-to-one mappings produces swapped pairs, especially when two products share the same chemical class.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 9, p.206

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