Plant Breeding Biofortification

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Cell: The Unit of LifePYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Plant Breeding & Biofortification — The Terminology Traps NEET Loves

NEET questions on plant breeding test whether you can distinguish between closely related breeding techniques and recall specific crop–nutrient pairings in biofortification. The confusion is always in the details — which method uses what, and which crop was bred for which nutrient.

Plant breeding is the purposeful manipulation of plant species to create improved varieties. NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 9 (page 184) outlines the classical breeding steps: collection of variability → evaluation and selection → cross-hybridisation among selected parents → selection and testing of superior recombinants → testing, release, and commercialisation. The sequence matters — NEET has tested the correct order.

Key breeding methods to distinguish:

  • Hybridisation: Crossing two genetically dissimilar parents. Includes intervarietal, interspecific, and intergeneric crosses.
  • Mutation breeding: Using physical (gamma rays) or chemical (EMS) mutagens to induce desirable mutations. Example: mung bean resistance developed through mutation breeding.
  • Polyploidy breeding: Colchicine-induced chromosome doubling to produce polyploids with desirable traits.

Biofortification is breeding crops for higher nutritional quality — specifically elevated levels of vitamins, minerals, proteins, or healthier fats. This is NOT the same as food fortification (which adds nutrients during processing). Biofortification is a genetic approach.

High-frequency NEET pairings:

CropNutrient improved
Atlas 66 (wheat)High protein
Iron-fortified riceIron
Vitamin A-enriched carrots, spinach, pumpkinVitamin A (carotenoids)
Vitamin C-enriched bitter gourd, tomato, mustardVitamin C
Iron and calcium-enriched spinach, bathuaIron, calcium
Protein-enriched beans (broad, lablab, French)Protein

Watch-out: NEET distractors swap crop–nutrient pairings. If a question asks about protein-enriched crops, the wrong option will offer a vitamin A crop. Know the table cold.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which of the following is the correct sequence of steps in classical plant breeding?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

Biofortification differs from food fortification because biofortification:

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Which wheat variety was developed for high protein content through plant breeding?

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A breeder wants to develop a mung bean variety resistant to yellow mosaic virus. Which breeding approach would be most appropriate?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

A plant breeder identifies that bitter gourd, bathua, tomato, and mustard have been improved through biofortification. For which nutrient has bitter gourd been specifically biofortified?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

In mutation breeding, the mutagen ethyl methane sulphonate (EMS) is classified as a:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A researcher develops a rice variety with elevated iron content through selective breeding over multiple generations. This is an example of:

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

A plant breeder is developing a disease-resistant, high-protein wheat variety. She crosses a high-yielding but disease-susceptible cultivar with Atlas 66, selects F2 recombinants showing both resistance and high protein, and tests them across multiple locations. Which steps of the breeding programme does this description cover?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A NEET question states: "Which of the following crops have been biofortified for the nutrients mentioned?" Options present crop–nutrient pairings.

  2. 2

    Required

    Identify the correct crop–nutrient biofortification pairing from NCERT.

  3. 3

    Concept

    Biofortification is the genetic improvement of crops for enhanced nutritional quality. NCERT Chapter 9 lists specific crop–nutrient associations that NEET tests as direct recall.

  4. 4

    Key knowledge (in place of formula)

    The NCERT biofortification table: - Vitamin A: carrots, spinach, pumpkin - Vitamin C: bitter gourd, tomato, mustard - Iron and calcium: spinach, bathua - Protein: beans (broad, lablab, French), wheat (Atlas 66)

  5. 5

    Application approach

    Match each option's crop–nutrient pairing against the NCERT table. Distractors typically swap one nutrient for another (Vitamin A crop listed under Vitamin C, or protein crop listed under iron).

  6. 6

    Evaluation

    Option A: "Spinach — Vitamin A" → Spinach appears under BOTH Vitamin A and iron/calcium in NCERT. This is a valid pairing but check if the question asks for the PRIMARY biofortification target. Option B: "Bitter gourd — Vitamin C" → Correct per NCERT. Option C: "Atlas 66 wheat — Iron" → Incorrect. Atlas 66 is high protein, not iron. Option D: "Tomato — Vitamin A" → Incorrect. Tomato is listed under Vitamin C.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    Option B: Bitter gourd — Vitamin C. This matches NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 9, page 184 exactly.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    The most frequent distractor strategy is swapping Atlas 66 from protein to iron/calcium, or swapping tomato from Vitamin C to Vitamin A. NEET exploits the fact that students memorise the crops but not which specific nutrient column they belong to.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "Which of the following is correctly matched regarding biofortification?" A. Carrots — Vitamin C B. Bathua — Protein C. French beans — Protein D. Pumpkin — Iron Answer: C (French beans are biofortified for protein per NCERT). ---

Before solving, remember these

In the NEET syllabus; removed from current NCERT.

Selection → hybridisation → testing → release. Hybrid vigour. Disease resistance, pest resistance, abiotic stress. Biofortification: enhanced nutrient content (Fe, Zn, vitamin A — golden rice, atta-1, swarna with high Fe, vitamin A).

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 8, p. 184

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

ELISA = screening (cheap, sensitive); Western blot = confirmation. CD4+ T cell count tracks disease progression.

When it triggers

Question on which test confirms HIV vs which monitors progression.

How to avoid

ELISA first (screening); Western blot confirms; CD4+ count = monitoring marker (<200/µL = AIDS).

Category: Similar Terms

Active: own immune response (vaccination, infection). Passive: pre-formed antibodies received (colostrum, antiserum injection).

When it triggers

Question on immunity type from vaccination, antiserum, mother's milk.

How to avoid

Active = body produces; passive = body receives. Vaccination → active. Mother's milk → passive (IgA).

Past Year Questions

29 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3A is correct but R is not correct
4A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2023

Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

1It exposes harmful recessive genes but are eliminated by selection.
2Elimination of less desirable genes and accumulation of superior genes takes place due to it.
3It decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding.
4It decreases homozygosity.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

1Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
2Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
3Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
4Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Match the following columns and select the correct option. 107. ÁŸêŸ Sà ÷Ê ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – Column - I Column - II Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (a) ’Ë≈UË ∑§¬Ê‚ (i) ¡ËŸ ÁøÁ∑§à‚Ê (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (b) ∞«UËŸÊ ‚ËŸ Á«U∞◊ËŸ ¡ (ii) ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§Ëÿ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ deaminase ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë deficiency (c) •Ê⁄U.∞Ÿ.∞.•Ê߸ (iii) HIV ‚ ∑˝§◊áÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÃÊ (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV ‹ªÊŸÊ infection (d) ¬Ë.‚Ë.•Ê⁄U. (iv) ’ÒÁ‚‹‚ (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus ÕÈÁ⁄ UÁ¡ÁŸÁ‚‚ thuringiensis (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

ÁŸêŸ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ flÊÁ„Ã◊‹ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § Á‹∞ •flÊÿflËÿ •ʬ ∑§ 120. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ? ‚ ¬ÊÁøòÊ ◊ «UÊ‹Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?

1Activated sludge (1) ‚ Á∑˝§ÿËà •ʬ ∑§
2Primary sludge (2) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ •ʬ ∑§
3Floating debris (3) ÃÒ⁄Uà „È∞ ∑ͧ«∏ -∑§⁄U∑§≈U
4Effluents of primary treatment (4) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § ’Á„—dÊfl
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Which of the following statements about inclusion 128. • ÃÁfl¸c≈U ∑§ÊÿÊ ∑ § Áfl ÿ ◊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ bodies is incorrect ? ª‹Ã „Ò?

1These represent reserve material in (1) ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ ÁŸÁøÃ ¬ŒÊÕ¸ ∑§Ê √ÿÄà ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – cytoplasm.
2ÿ Á∑§‚Ë Á¤ÊÀ‹Ë ‚ ÁÉÊ⁄ U Ÿ„Ë „Ê Ã – (2) They are not bound by any membrane.
3These are involved in ingestion of food (3) ÿ πÊl ∑§áÊÊ ∑ § • ê˝¸„áÊ ◊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ê Ã „Ò – particles.
4ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ Sflà òÊ M§¬ ◊ „Ê Ã „Ò – (4) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑ § ‚ Œ÷¸ ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞– 131. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

1÷˝ÍáÊ ◊ÊÃÊ ‚ ∑ȧ¿U ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝Êåà ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò, ÿ„ ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ (1) Foetus receives some antibodies from ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò– mother, it is an example for passive
2¡’ ¬⁄U¬Ê Ë ∑§Ê ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U (¡ËÁflà •ÕflÊ ◊ÎÃ) ¬˝Á០∑ § immunity. ‚ ¬∑¸§ ◊ •ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑ § ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U ◊ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ©à¬ÛÊ (2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) „Ê Ã „Ò – ß‚ ““‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
3¡’ ’Ÿ ’ŸÊ∞ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝àÿˇÊ M§¬ ‚ ÁŒ∞ ¡Êà „Ò , ß‚ (3) When ready-made antibodies are directly ““ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
4‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ¡ÀŒË „Ê ÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Íáʸ ¬˝ÁÃÁ∑˝§ÿÊ Œ ÃË (4) Active immunity is quick and gives full „Ò– response.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Diseases, immunity, AIDS, cancer, drugs, animal husbandry, microbes

RecallMedium

Common distractors

active vs passive immunity confusion

Vaccination triggers the body to produce its own antibodies (active immunity), but students interpret 'given externally' as passive. Passive immunity (antiserum, colostrum IgA from mother's milk) provides preformed antibodies with no immune response from the recipient. Questions that pair vaccination, antiserum, and colostrum expose students who cannot classify by mechanism rather than by route of administration.

vector vs causative agent confusion

Questions name both the vector (organism that transmits) and the causative agent (organism that causes disease) as answer options. Students who associate 'Anopheles = malaria' select Anopheles as the causative agent rather than recognising it as the vector; Plasmodium is the causative agent. The distinction -- vector transmits, causative agent infects -- is lost when both options are plausible from partial recall.

microbe product pair swap

Match-list questions pair 10 or more microbe names with industrial or household products. Students confuse Lactobacillus (lactic acid fermentation, curd) with Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ethanol, bread), or Aspergillus niger (citric acid) with Clostridium butylicum (butyric acid). Partial recall of one-to-one mappings produces swapped pairs, especially when two products share the same chemical class.

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