Scp Tissue Culture

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Cell: The Unit of LifePYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Single-cell protein (SCP) and tissue culture are two biotechnology applications that appear in NEET as recall-heavy questions — and the common trap is mixing up the organisms, substrates, and techniques associated with each.

Single-cell protein (SCP) refers to the dried microbial biomass or total protein extracted from pure or mixed cultures of microorganisms used as food or animal feed. The key organism NCERT highlights is Spirulina — a cyanobacterium grown on waste water from potato processing, starch factories, or molasses. Other SCP organisms include Methylophilus methylotrophus (grown on methanol) and yeasts like Candida utilis. SCP addresses the problem of protein deficiency in developing nations by converting industrial waste into edible biomass — a dual benefit of nutrition and waste management (NCERT Class 12 Biology, Chapter 9, page 192).

The NEET-relevant facts to lock in: Spirulina is the textbook-cited SCP organism, it grows on industrial effluent (not soil or seawater), and SCP is whole microbial biomass — not a purified enzyme or antibiotic extract.

Tissue culture (plant tissue culture / micropropagation) exploits totipotency — the ability of any living plant cell to regenerate a complete organism. A small tissue piece (explant) is grown on a nutrient medium containing growth regulators to produce a callus, which differentiates into plantlets. The resulting plants are somaclones. This technique enables rapid clonal propagation of disease-free plants and is the basis for producing virus-free varieties (meristem culture).

Common NEET confusions: somaclones vs somatic hybrids (somaclones come from tissue culture of one parent; somatic hybrids come from protoplast fusion of two species). Totipotency is the underlying principle — not pluripotency (an animal-biology term rarely used in NCERT botany context).


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which microorganism is commonly cited in NCERT as a source of single-cell protein grown on industrial waste water?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

The property of plant cells that allows tissue culture to regenerate a complete organism from a single cell is called:

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Plants obtained through tissue culture of a single parent are genetically identical and are called:

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A plant breeder wants to produce virus-free plants of a commercially important variety. Which tissue culture technique should be employed?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

SCP production addresses two problems simultaneously. Which pair correctly identifies both?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

In plant tissue culture, an undifferentiated mass of cells produced from an explant on nutrient medium is called:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A student claims that somaclones and somatic hybrids are the same because both are produced in vitro. What is the key distinction that makes this claim incorrect?

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

A researcher cultures *Spirulina* on potato processing waste water and harvests 250 kg of dried biomass. If *Spirulina* biomass contains approximately 60% protein by dry weight, and this protein is to supplement the diet of a community where each person requires 10 g of additional protein per day, how many people can be served for one day?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A tissue culture lab receives an explant from a high-yielding tomato variety. The explant is placed on a nutrient medium with auxin and cytokinin. After several weeks, an undifferentiated cell mass forms. The lab then transfers portions to a differentiation medium, producing 500 identical plantlets.

  2. 2

    Required

    (a) Name the undifferentiated cell mass. (b) What property of plant cells makes this technique possible? (c) What are the 500 identical plantlets called? (d) If the lab instead fused protoplasts from this tomato with protoplasts from a wild potato species, what would the resulting hybrid be called?

  3. 3

    Concept

    Plant tissue culture relies on totipotency. An explant dedifferentiates into callus (undifferentiated mass), which redifferentiates into plantlets. Clonal plants from tissue culture are somaclones. Protoplast fusion produces somatic hybrids — a fundamentally different product.

  4. 4

    Formula

    No mathematical formula applies. The reasoning chain is: explant → callus → plantlets (somaclones) via totipotency. Protoplast fusion → somatic hybrid via a separate technique.

  5. 5

    Substitution

    (a) Undifferentiated mass on nutrient medium = callus. (b) Underlying property = totipotency. (c) 500 identical plants from one parent via tissue culture = somaclones. (d) Fusion of protoplasts from two species = somatic hybrid.

  6. 6

    Calculation

    No numerical calculation. This is a terminology-application problem typical of NEET biology.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    (a) Callus (b) Totipotency (c) Somaclones (d) Somatic hybrid

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Confusing somaclones with somatic hybrids is a high-frequency NEET distractor. The distinguishing criterion is the number of parents: somaclones = one parent (clonal), somatic hybrids = two parents (interspecific fusion). Another trap: confusing totipotency (plant cells, full organism regeneration) with pluripotency (animal stem cells, limited differentiation).

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "Somatic hybridization involves: (A) grafting of two plants, (B) fusion of protoplasts from two different species, (C) tissue culture from a single explant, (D) cross-pollination followed by embryo rescue." The answer is B — protoplast fusion is the defining step for somatic hybridization. ---

Before solving, remember these

In the NEET syllabus; removed from current NCERT.

Single-cell protein: Spirulina, Methylophilus methylotrophus — protein source. Tissue culture: totipotency (Haberlandt). Explant → callus → plantlet on hormone media (auxin/cytokinin ratio). Somatic embryos, somaclonal variation, micropropagation.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 8, p. 192

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

ELISA = screening (cheap, sensitive); Western blot = confirmation. CD4+ T cell count tracks disease progression.

When it triggers

Question on which test confirms HIV vs which monitors progression.

How to avoid

ELISA first (screening); Western blot confirms; CD4+ count = monitoring marker (<200/µL = AIDS).

Category: Similar Terms

Active: own immune response (vaccination, infection). Passive: pre-formed antibodies received (colostrum, antiserum injection).

When it triggers

Question on immunity type from vaccination, antiserum, mother's milk.

How to avoid

Active = body produces; passive = body receives. Vaccination → active. Mother's milk → passive (IgA).

Past Year Questions

29 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Bt toxins are insect group specific and coded by a gene cry IAc. Statement II : Bt toxin exists as inactive protoxin in B. thuringiensis. However, after ingestion by the insect the inactive protoxin gets converted into active form due to acidic pH of the insect gut. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are true
2Both Statement I and Statement II are false
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R: Assertion A : Breast-feeding during initial period of infant growth is recommended by doctors for bringing a healthy baby. Reason R : Colostrum contains several antibodies absolutely essential to develop resistance for the new born baby. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
3A is correct but R is not correct
4A is not correct but R is correct
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2023

Which one of the following is NOT an advantage of inbreeding?

1It exposes harmful recessive genes but are eliminated by selection.
2Elimination of less desirable genes and accumulation of superior genes takes place due to it.
3It decreases the productivity of inbred population, after continuous inbreeding.
4It decreases homozygosity.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Autoimmune disorder is a condition where body defense mechanism recognizes its own cells as foreign bodies. Statement II: Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition where body does not attack self cells. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Select the incorrect statement with respect to acquired immunity.

1Acquired immunity is non-specific type of defense present at the time of birth.
2Primary response is produced when our body encounters a pathogen for the first time.
3Anamnestic response is elicited on subsequent encounters with the same pathogen.
4Anamnestic response is due to memory of first encounter.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Match the following columns and select the correct option. 107. ÁŸêŸ Sà ÷Ê ∑§Ê Á◊‹ÊŸ ∑§⁄U ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ ∑§Ê øÿŸ ∑§⁄UÊ – Column - I Column - II Sà ÷ - I Sà ÷ - II (a) Bt cotton (i) Gene therapy (a) ’Ë≈UË ∑§¬Ê‚ (i) ¡ËŸ ÁøÁ∑§à‚Ê (b) Adenosine (ii) Cellular defence (b) ∞«UËŸÊ ‚ËŸ Á«U∞◊ËŸ ¡ (ii) ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§Ëÿ ‚È⁄UˇÊÊ deaminase ∑§Ë ∑§◊Ë deficiency (c) •Ê⁄U.∞Ÿ.∞.•Ê߸ (iii) HIV ‚ ∑˝§◊áÊ ∑§Ê ¬ÃÊ (c) RNAi (iii) Detection of HIV ‹ªÊŸÊ infection (d) ¬Ë.‚Ë.•Ê⁄U. (iv) ’ÒÁ‚‹‚ (d) PCR (iv) Bacillus ÕÈÁ⁄ UÁ¡ÁŸÁ‚‚ thuringiensis (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2(iv) (i) (ii) (iii) (2) (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

ÁŸêŸ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ flÊÁ„Ã◊‹ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § Á‹∞ •flÊÿflËÿ •ʬ ∑§ 120. Which of the following is put into Anaerobic sludge digester for further sewage treatment ? ‚ ¬ÊÁøòÊ ◊ «UÊ‹Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?

1Activated sludge (1) ‚ Á∑˝§ÿËà •ʬ ∑§
2Primary sludge (2) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ •ʬ ∑§
3Floating debris (3) ÃÒ⁄Uà „È∞ ∑ͧ«∏ -∑§⁄U∑§≈U
4Effluents of primary treatment (4) ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ ©¬øÊ⁄U ∑ § ’Á„—dÊfl
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

Which of the following statements about inclusion 128. • ÃÁfl¸c≈U ∑§ÊÿÊ ∑ § Áfl ÿ ◊ ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ bodies is incorrect ? ª‹Ã „Ò?

1These represent reserve material in (1) ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ ÁŸÁøÃ ¬ŒÊÕ¸ ∑§Ê √ÿÄà ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – cytoplasm.
2ÿ Á∑§‚Ë Á¤ÊÀ‹Ë ‚ ÁÉÊ⁄ U Ÿ„Ë „Ê Ã – (2) They are not bound by any membrane.
3These are involved in ingestion of food (3) ÿ πÊl ∑§áÊÊ ∑ § • ê˝¸„áÊ ◊ ‡ÊÊÁ◊‹ „Ê Ã „Ò – particles.
4ÿ ∑§Ê Á‡Ê∑§ÊŒ˝√ÿ ◊ Sflà òÊ M§¬ ◊ „Ê Ã „Ò – (4) They lie free in the cytoplasm.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑ § ‚ Œ÷¸ ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞– 131. Identify the wrong statement with reference to immunity.

1÷˝ÍáÊ ◊ÊÃÊ ‚ ∑ȧ¿U ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝Êåà ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò, ÿ„ ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ (1) Foetus receives some antibodies from ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ∑§Ê ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ „Ò– mother, it is an example for passive
2¡’ ¬⁄U¬Ê Ë ∑§Ê ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U (¡ËÁflà •ÕflÊ ◊ÎÃ) ¬˝Á០∑ § immunity. ‚ ¬∑¸§ ◊ •ÊÃÊ „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ©‚∑ § ‡Ê⁄UË⁄U ◊ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ©à¬ÛÊ (2) When exposed to antigen (living or dead) „Ê Ã „Ò – ß‚ ““‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – antibodies are produced in the host’s body. It is called “Active immunity”.
3¡’ ’Ÿ ’ŸÊ∞ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊË ¬˝àÿˇÊ M§¬ ‚ ÁŒ∞ ¡Êà „Ò , ß‚ (3) When ready-made antibodies are directly ““ÁŸÁc∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ”” ∑§„à „Ò – given, it is called “Passive immunity”.
4‚Á∑˝§ÿ ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UˇÊÊ ¡ÀŒË „Ê ÃË „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U ¬Íáʸ ¬˝ÁÃÁ∑˝§ÿÊ Œ ÃË (4) Active immunity is quick and gives full „Ò– response.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Diseases, immunity, AIDS, cancer, drugs, animal husbandry, microbes

RecallMedium

Common distractors

active vs passive immunity confusion

Vaccination triggers the body to produce its own antibodies (active immunity), but students interpret 'given externally' as passive. Passive immunity (antiserum, colostrum IgA from mother's milk) provides preformed antibodies with no immune response from the recipient. Questions that pair vaccination, antiserum, and colostrum expose students who cannot classify by mechanism rather than by route of administration.

vector vs causative agent confusion

Questions name both the vector (organism that transmits) and the causative agent (organism that causes disease) as answer options. Students who associate 'Anopheles = malaria' select Anopheles as the causative agent rather than recognising it as the vector; Plasmodium is the causative agent. The distinction -- vector transmits, causative agent infects -- is lost when both options are plausible from partial recall.

microbe product pair swap

Match-list questions pair 10 or more microbe names with industrial or household products. Students confuse Lactobacillus (lactic acid fermentation, curd) with Saccharomyces cerevisiae (ethanol, bread), or Aspergillus niger (citric acid) with Clostridium butylicum (butyric acid). Partial recall of one-to-one mappings produces swapped pairs, especially when two products share the same chemical class.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 9, p.192

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