Environmental Issues Ozone Global

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Cell Cycle and Cell DivisionPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

The trap: NEET repeatedly tests whether you can distinguish ozone depletion (stratospheric UV problem) from global warming (tropospheric heat-trapping problem). They are different mechanisms, different pollutants, different atmospheric layers — but aspirants conflate them because both involve "gases damaging the atmosphere."

Ozone depletion occurs in the stratosphere (15–50 km altitude). UV radiation splits CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons), releasing reactive chlorine atoms. Each Cl atom catalytically destroys thousands of ozone (O₃) molecules. The result: the "ozone hole" — thinning over Antarctica detected since the 1980s. The Montreal Protocol (1987) phased out CFCs and is considered the most successful international environmental treaty.

Key NCERT fact (Class 12 Biology Chapter 16, page 304): UV-B radiation damages DNA, causes skin cancer, cataracts, and harms phytoplankton productivity.

Greenhouse effect and global warming operate in the troposphere. CO₂, CH₄, N₂O, and CFCs absorb outgoing infrared radiation, re-radiating heat back to Earth's surface. This natural greenhouse effect maintains Earth's habitable temperature (~15°C vs. −18°C without it). The problem is enhancement — anthropogenic emissions since industrialisation have increased CO₂ from ~280 ppm to >420 ppm, raising global mean temperature.

Consequences of global warming: polar ice melt, sea-level rise, altered precipitation patterns, shifts in species ranges, coral bleaching, increased extreme weather events.

Watch-out for NEET: CFCs contribute to BOTH ozone depletion AND greenhouse warming — they are the overlap molecule. But CO₂ does NOT deplete ozone. Questions testing "which gas causes both" target this distinction.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which international protocol specifically addresses the phase-out of ozone-depleting substances?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

In which layer of the atmosphere does ozone depletion primarily occur?

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Which type of UV radiation is primarily responsible for causing skin cancer and is normally filtered by stratospheric ozone?

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A student claims that increasing atmospheric CO₂ is the direct cause of ozone hole formation. This claim is:

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

Which of the following gases contributes to BOTH ozone depletion AND the greenhouse effect?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

The enhanced greenhouse effect refers to:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

If all CFC emissions stopped today, the ozone hole would NOT immediately recover because:

MCQ 8Concept TrapPractice

A NEET question states: "Global warming leads to melting of polar ice, which in turn causes sea-level rise." Which consequence follows from the sea-level rise?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A factory releases the following gases: CO₂, SO₂, CFCs, and CH₄. A student is asked to identify which of these contribute to (i) ozone depletion, (ii) greenhouse effect, (iii) both.

  2. 2

    Required

    Classify each gas by its environmental role: ozone-depleting substance (ODS), greenhouse gas (GHG), or both.

  3. 3

    Concept

    Ozone depletion requires halogenated compounds that release reactive Cl or Br in the stratosphere. Greenhouse effect requires molecules that absorb and re-emit infrared radiation in the troposphere.

  4. 4

    Classification framework

    - ODS criterion: contains Cl, Br, or F atoms that become reactive in stratosphere - GHG criterion: absorbs infrared (IR) radiation, has atmospheric persistence

  5. 5

    Analysis

    | Gas | Contains halogens? | Absorbs IR? | Classification | |-----|-------------------|-------------|----------------| | CO₂ | No (C, O only) | Yes | GHG only | | SO₂ | No (S, O only) | Minimal (aerosol cooling) | Neither (causes acid rain) | | CFCs | Yes (Cl, F) | Yes | BOTH ODS + GHG | | CH₄ | No (C, H only) | Yes | GHG only |

  6. 6

    Result

    - Ozone depletion: CFCs only - Greenhouse effect: CO₂, CFCs, CH₄ - Both: CFCs - Neither (for these two problems): SO₂ (contributes to acid rain instead)

  7. 7

    Final answer

    CFCs are the ONLY gas in this list that contributes to both ozone depletion and the greenhouse effect.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Students often select CO₂ as contributing to ozone depletion because they conflate "atmospheric damage" as a single mechanism. CO₂ has no halogen atoms and cannot catalytically destroy ozone. The two problems — ozone depletion (stratospheric, UV, halogens) and global warming (tropospheric, IR, GHGs) — operate by completely different chemical mechanisms.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "Which of the following is common to both ozone depletion and enhanced greenhouse effect? (a) CO₂ (b) SO₂ (c) CFCs (d) N₂O" Answer: (c) CFCs. N₂O is a greenhouse gas and has minor ozone-depleting potential, but CFCs are the textbook-standard answer for the "both" category at NEET level. ---

Before solving, remember these

Ozone hole: CFCs → Cl radicals → O3 destruction (Antarctica, spring). Montreal Protocol (1987). Greenhouse: CO2, CH4, N2O, CFCs, water vapour → global warming. IPCC; Kyoto, Paris agreements.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 13, p. 304

Formulas

Lindeman's 10% law of energy transfer

Approximately 10% of energy at one trophic level is transferred to the next; rest dissipated as heat.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
E_nenergy at level nkcal/m²

Valid when

  • Idealised trophic transfer

Logistic population growth

Population grows exponentially at small N; growth slows as N approaches K (carrying capacity); equilibrium at N = K.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
Npopulation size-
rintrinsic rate of increase/time
Kcarrying capacity-

Valid when

  • Verhulst-Pearl assumptions
  • Limiting resource

Species-area relationship

Number of species S in area A increases as a power law. Z (slope) = 0.1-0.2 for small areas, 0.6-1.2 for continents.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
Sspecies number-
Aarea-
Zslope-
Cintercept-

Valid when

  • Within a biogeographic region

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

Mutualism benefits BOTH; commensalism benefits one, neutral for the other; parasitism +,−; predation +,−.

When it triggers

Question presents organism-pair interaction and asks for type.

How to avoid

Tabulate effects on each partner: (+,+), (+,0), (+,−), (−,−), (0,−), (0,0).

Root cause: term confusion

Correction

K-selected: large body, few offspring with high parental investment, long-lived (whales, humans, elephants). r-selected: small body, many offspring, low investment, short-lived (insects, weeds).

Root cause: concept gap

Correction

Pyramid of ENERGY is ALWAYS upright (10% law guarantees decreasing energy at higher trophic levels). Pyramid of NUMBER and BIOMASS can be inverted (e.g. ocean: small algae < large zooplankton at one moment).

Past Year Questions

44 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2024

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1A, C, D and E only
2A and B only
3A, B and E only
4A, B and D only
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
2Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
3Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
4Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system foam control system
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Identify the correct statements: A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1B, C, D only
2C, D, E only
3D, E, A only
4A, B, C only
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
2Statement I is correct Statement II is false.
3Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
4Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II : Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Match List I with List II. List I List II A. Logistic growth I. Unlimited resource availability condition B. Exponential growth II. Limited resource availability condition C. Expanding age pyramid III. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups D. Stable age pyramid IV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
2The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
3The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
4Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Which of the following statements is not true?

1Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
2Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
3Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
4Homology indicates common ancestry
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

Which of the following is a correct statement?

1Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.
2Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera.
3Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
4Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2021

Select the correct pair. 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy (1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I rupturing the epidermis parenchyma and PS II and forming a lens shaped opening in bark
2Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized (2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells during non-cyclic photophosphorylation cells in the epidermis
3Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP of grass leaves reductase (3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive bundles are surrounded tissue
4Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II by large thick-walled cells
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2021

In the exponential growth equation N = N ert, e t o

1(iv) (iii) (ii) (i) represents (1) The base of geometric logarithms
2(ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) The base of number logarithms
3(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) The base of exponential logarithms
4(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) The base of natural logarithms
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

‚Ÿ˜ 1987 ◊ ◊ÊÚÁã≈˛Uÿ‹ ¬˝Ê ≈UÊ ∑§ÊÚ‹ Á∑§‚ ¬⁄U ÁŸÿ òÊáÊ ∑ § Á‹∞ 101. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control „SÃÊˇÊÁ⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ? of :

1e-fl S≈U (e-∑ͧ«∏Ê ∑§⁄U∑§≈U) ∑§Ê ÁŸ¬≈UÊŸ (1) Disposal of e-wastes
2∞∑§ Œ ‡Ê ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄ U Œ ‡Ê ◊ •ÊŸÈfl Á‡Ê∑§Ã— M§¬Ê ÃÁ⁄Uà ¡ËflÊ (2) Transport of Genetically modified organisms ∑ § ¬Á⁄Ufl„Ÿ ∑ § Á‹∞ from one country to another
3•Ê $¡Ê Ÿ ∑§Ê ˇÊÁà ¬„ȰøÊŸ flÊ‹ ¬ŒÊÕÊ Z ∑§Ê ©à‚¡¸Ÿ (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances
4„Á⁄Uà ªÎ„ ªÒ‚Ê ∑§Ê ¿UÊ «∏ŸÊ (4) Release of Green House gases H3 24 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

ÉÊÊ‚ ÷ÍÁ◊ ¬ÊÁ⁄UÃãòÊ ◊ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄UÊ ∑ § ‚ÊÕ ¡ÊÁÃÿÊ ∑ § ‚„Ë 108. Match the trophic levels with their correct species ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ‚È◊ Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞– examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) øÃÈÕ¸ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (i) ∑§ÊflÒ Ê (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (b) ÁmÃËÿ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (ii) Áªh (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (c) ¬˝Õ◊ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (iii) π⁄UªÊ ‡Ê (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (d) ÃÎÃËÿ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (iv) ÉÊÊ‚ (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ øÈÁŸ∞ — Select the correct option : (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) H3 26 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

∞∑§ ¬ÊÁ⁄UÃãòÊ ◊ ‚∑§‹ ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ ≈U ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ (4) They are useful in genetic engineering. ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ∑ § ‚ ’㜠◊ , ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë 113. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net „Ò? primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one

1‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •Ê⁄Ò U Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ of the following statements is correct ? ∑ § ’Ëø ∑§Ê ߸ ‚ê’㜠Ÿ„Ë „Ò– (1) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary
2‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ‚ŒflÒ Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ productivity. ‚ ∑§◊ „Ê ÃË „Ò– (2) Gross primary productivity is always less
3‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ‚ŒflÒ Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ than net primary productivity. ‚ •Áœ∑§ „Ê ÃË „Ò– (3) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
4‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •Ê⁄Ò U Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ (4) Gross primary productivity and Net primary ∞∑§ „Ë „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U •Á÷ÛÊ „Ò– productivity are one and same. Hindi+English 27 H3
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

• ≈UÊ∑¸˜§Á≈U∑§ ˇÊ òÊ ◊ Á„◊-• œÃÊ Á∑§‚ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ „Ê ÃË „Ò? temperature

1•fl⁄UÄà Á∑§⁄UáÊÊ mÊ⁄UÊ ⁄ U≈UËŸÊ ◊ ˇÊÁà (3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
2ÁŸêŸ Ãʬ mÊ⁄UÊ •ʰπ ◊ Œ˝fl ∑ § ¡◊Ÿ ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (4) High reflection of light from snow
3UV-B ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§Ë ©ìÊ ◊ÊòÊÊ ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ∑§ÊÚÁŸ¸ÿÊ ∑§Ê ‡ÊÊÕ 118. Strobili or cones are found in : (1) Equisetum
4Á„◊ ‚ ¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê ∑§Ê ©ìÊ ¬⁄UÊfløŸ (2) Salvinia
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

Name the plant growth regulator which upon 127. ©‚ flÎÁh ÁŸÿ òÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊ ’ÃÊßÿ Á¡‚ ªÛÊ ∑§Ë »§‚‹ ¬⁄U spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length Á¿U«∏∑§Ÿ ‚ ©‚∑ § ß ∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸ ◊ ’…∏Ê ûÊ⁄UË „Ê ÃË „Ò, ÃÕÊ ªÛÊ of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop. ∑ § »§‚‹ ∑§Ë ¬ÒŒÊflÊ⁄U ’…∏ÃË „Ò–

1Abscisic acid (1) ∞ é‚ËÁ‚∑§ •ê‹
2Cytokinin (2) ‚Êß≈UÊ ∑§Êߟ˟
3Gibberellin (3) Á¡’⁄ U‹ËŸ
4Ethylene (4) ∞ÁÕ‹ËŸ
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Population growth, interactions, ecosystem, biodiversity, conservation, pollution

RecallMedium

Common distractors

population interaction type confusion

Six interaction types form a 2x2 effect matrix (+,+), (+,-), (+,0), (-,-), (-,0), (0,0). Students who have memorised the symbols cannot always assign real organism pairs correctly: barnacles on a whale body = commensalism (+,0) not mutualism (+,+); mycorrhizal fungi on plant roots = mutualism not parasitism. The most common error is selecting mutualism for commensalism examples because both organisms are 'associated'.

ecological pyramid inversion error

Students learn that 'ecological pyramids can be inverted' from the examples of the number pyramid (tree-insects-birds) and the ocean biomass pyramid. They over-apply this to energy pyramids. The 10% law guarantees that energy ALWAYS decreases at each trophic level -- no realistic scenario inverts the energy pyramid. Questions ask which pyramid type 'can be inverted'; students select energy because they generalise the inversion rule.

k r selection confusion

K-selected species (large body, few offspring, high parental investment, long-lived: whales, humans, elephants) are confused with r-selected (small body, many offspring, no parental care: insects, frogs, bacteria). Students who associate 'reproducing as humans do = normal' call humans r-selected, or who associate 'complex animal = cared-for offspring' call oysters K-selected.

speciation type confusion

Sympatric speciation occurs in the same geographic area without physical isolation (e.g., polyploidy); allopatric speciation requires a geographic barrier. Students who cannot recall the Greek roots (sym = same, allo = different) confuse the two when a question describes a real-world scenario and asks which speciation type it illustrates.

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