Environmental Issues Pollution

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Cell Cycle and Cell DivisionPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Environmental pollution is a high-frequency NEET topic. Questions test whether you can distinguish pollutant types, name the correct control device or legislation, and match diseases to their causative pollutant. The common trap is term-swapping — confusing the specific pollutant source, the control method, or the regulatory body.

Air pollution. Major pollutants: particulate matter, SO₂, CO, NOₓ, hydrocarbons. Electrostatic precipitators (ESP) remove 99% of particulate matter from industrial exhaust (NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 16, page 302). Catalytic converters fitted to automobiles reduce CO, NOₓ, and unburnt hydrocarbons — the catalyst is typically platinum-palladium-rhodium. The key distinction: ESP is for particulate matter from industrial sources; catalytic converters are for gaseous emissions from vehicles.

Water pollution. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) measures organic pollution — high BOD means heavily polluted water because decomposing microorganisms consume dissolved oxygen. Eutrophication results from excess nutrients (phosphates, nitrates) causing algal blooms, oxygen depletion, and aquatic death. Biomagnification: concentration of non-biodegradable toxicants (DDT, mercury) increases at successive trophic levels — top predators carry the highest load.

Noise pollution. Sound above 150 dB damages eardrums. Chronic exposure above 80–85 dB causes hearing impairment. NEET questions test the threshold values and health effects.

Solid waste and e-waste. Remediation strategies: sanitary landfills, incineration, composting. E-waste (discarded electronic goods) contains toxic metals — lead, mercury, cadmium. Recycling in developing countries often occurs without safety measures, causing occupational health hazards.

Radioactive waste. Low-level waste is diluted and disposed; high-level waste is stored in shielded containers underground. UV-B radiation (linked to ozone depletion) causes skin cancer, cataracts, and immune suppression — a frequent cross-topic connection tested in NEET.

Watch-out: NEET stems often present a pollutant-control device and ask what it removes. Know the device–pollutant pairing precisely: ESP → particulates; scrubber → gases (SO₂); catalytic converter → CO, NOₓ, hydrocarbons.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Which device is used in industrial smokestacks to remove over 99% of particulate matter from exhaust?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a measure of:

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Which of the following is the correct set of metals that make up the catalyst in an automobile catalytic converter?

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A lake near an agricultural area receives heavy runoff of phosphate-rich fertilisers. Which sequence of events correctly describes what follows?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

DDT sprayed on crops is found at the highest concentration in fish-eating birds rather than in the water or in small fish. This phenomenon is called:

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

An electrostatic precipitator uses electrode wires maintained at several thousand volts to produce a corona that charges soot particles. The charged particles are then collected on:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A student claims that the pyramid of energy in an aquatic ecosystem is inverted because phytoplankton biomass is less than zooplankton biomass at any given time. What is the error in this reasoning?

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

Consider the following pollutants and control devices:

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    An automobile exhaust releases carbon monoxide (CO), oxides of nitrogen (NOₓ), and unburnt hydrocarbons. A catalytic converter is fitted to the exhaust system.

  2. 2

    Required

    Explain the role of the catalytic converter: what reactions does it catalyse, and what are the products?

  3. 3

    Concept

    A catalytic converter uses expensive metal catalysts (platinum, palladium, rhodium) to convert harmful gaseous pollutants into less harmful products through simultaneous oxidation and reduction reactions.

  4. 4

    Formula

    No quantitative formula applies. The conversion involves two reaction types: - Oxidation: 2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂; unburnt hydrocarbons + O₂ → CO₂ + H₂O - Reduction: 2NOₓ → N₂ + O₂ (rhodium catalyses the dissociation)

  5. 5

    Substitution

    Not applicable (qualitative mechanism question).

  6. 6

    Calculation

    Not applicable. The key factual steps: 1. Exhaust gases pass over the Pt-Pd-Rh catalyst bed. 2. CO is oxidised to CO₂. 3. Unburnt hydrocarbons are oxidised to CO₂ and H₂O. 4. NOₓ is reduced to N₂ and O₂. 5. Motor vehicles fitted with catalytic converters must use unleaded petrol because lead inactivates the catalyst.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    The catalytic converter simultaneously oxidises CO and hydrocarbons to CO₂ and H₂O, and reduces NOₓ to N₂ and O₂. The essential additional fact for NEET: unleaded petrol is mandatory because lead poisons the catalyst.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Students confuse the electrostatic precipitator (for industrial particulate matter) with the catalytic converter (for automobile gaseous emissions). The ESP uses high-voltage electrodes; the catalytic converter uses precious-metal catalysts. Know the device–pollutant–source triplet.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "A catalytic converter fitted to automobile exhaust reduces emission of which of the following pollutants? (a) Particulate matter only (b) SO₂ and particulates (c) CO, NOₓ, and unburnt hydrocarbons (d) Lead and mercury vapour." Answer: (c). ---

Before solving, remember these

Key Fact

Pollution

Air: SOx, NOx, CO, particulates. Water: BOD ↑, eutrophication, biomagnification (DDT, mercury). Soil: pesticides, heavy metals. Noise > 60 dB harmful. E-waste: hazardous chemicals; recycling required.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 13, p. 302

Formulas

Lindeman's 10% law of energy transfer

Approximately 10% of energy at one trophic level is transferred to the next; rest dissipated as heat.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
E_nenergy at level nkcal/m²

Valid when

  • Idealised trophic transfer

Logistic population growth

Population grows exponentially at small N; growth slows as N approaches K (carrying capacity); equilibrium at N = K.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
Npopulation size-
rintrinsic rate of increase/time
Kcarrying capacity-

Valid when

  • Verhulst-Pearl assumptions
  • Limiting resource

Species-area relationship

Number of species S in area A increases as a power law. Z (slope) = 0.1-0.2 for small areas, 0.6-1.2 for continents.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
Sspecies number-
Aarea-
Zslope-
Cintercept-

Valid when

  • Within a biogeographic region

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

Mutualism benefits BOTH; commensalism benefits one, neutral for the other; parasitism +,−; predation +,−.

When it triggers

Question presents organism-pair interaction and asks for type.

How to avoid

Tabulate effects on each partner: (+,+), (+,0), (+,−), (−,−), (0,−), (0,0).

Root cause: term confusion

Correction

K-selected: large body, few offspring with high parental investment, long-lived (whales, humans, elephants). r-selected: small body, many offspring, low investment, short-lived (insects, weeds).

Root cause: concept gap

Correction

Pyramid of ENERGY is ALWAYS upright (10% law guarantees decreasing energy at higher trophic levels). Pyramid of NUMBER and BIOMASS can be inverted (e.g. ocean: small algae < large zooplankton at one moment).

Past Year Questions

44 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Given below are two statements: Statement I: In ecosystem, there is unidirectional flow of energy of sun from producers to consumers. Statement II: Ecosystems are exempted from 2nd law of thermodynamics. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements: Statement I : The primary source of energy in an ecosystem is solar energy. Statement II : The rate of production of organic matter during photosynthesis in an ecosystem is called net primary productivity (NPP). In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2024

Tropical regions show greatest level of species richness because A. Tropical latitudes have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years, hence more time was available for species diversification. B. Tropical environments are more seasonal. C. More solar energy is available in tropics. D. Constant environments promote niche specialization. E. Tropical environments are constant and predictable. Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1A, C, D and E only
2A and B only
3A, B and E only
4A, B and D only
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2024

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1A bio-reactor provides optimal growth conditions for achieving the desired product
2Most commonly used bio-reactors are of stirring type
3Bio-reactors are used to produce small scale bacterial cultures
4Bio-reactors have an agitator system, an oxygen delivery system foam control system
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2024

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Gause's competitive exclusion principle states that two closely related species competing for different resources cannot exist indefinitely. Statement II: According to Gause's principle, during competition, the inferior will be eliminated. This may be true if resources are limiting. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
2Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
3Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
4Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Identify the correct statements: A. Detrivores perform fragmentation. B. The humus is further degraded by some microbes during mineralization. C. Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil and get precipitated by a process called leaching. D. The detritus food chain begins with living organisms. E. Earthworms break down detritus into smaller particles by a process called catabolism. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1B, C, D only
2C, D, E only
3D, E, A only
4A, B, C only
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: Statement I : Gause’s ‘Competitive Exclusion Principle’ states that two closely related species competing for the same resources cannot co-exist indefinitely and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually. Statement II : In general, carnivores are more adversely affected by competition than herbivores. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
2Statement I is correct Statement II is false.
3Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is true.
4Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Electrostatic precipitator is most widely used in thermal power plant. Statement II : Electrostatic precipitator in thermal power plant removes ionising radiations. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
3Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
4Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Match List I with List II. List I List II A. Logistic growth I. Unlimited resource availability condition B. Exponential growth II. Limited resource availability condition C. Expanding age pyramid III. The percent individuals of pre-reproductive age is largest followed by reproductive and post reproductive age groups D. Stable age pyramid IV. The percent individuals of pre-reproductives and reproductive age group are same Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
2A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
3A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
4A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Decomposition is a process in which the detritus is degraded into simpler substances by microbes. Statement II: Decomposition is faster if the detritus is rich in lignin and chitin. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Which one of the following statements is correct?

1Increased ventricular pressure causes closing of the semilunar valves.
2The atrio-ventricular node (AVN) generates an action potential to stimulate atrial contraction
3The tricuspid and the bicuspid valves open due to the pressure exerted by the simultaneous contraction of the atria
4Blood moves freely from atrium to the ventricle during joint diastole.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2022

Which of the following statements is not true?

1Flippers of penguins and dolphins are a pair of homologous organs
2Analogous structures are a result of convergent evolution
3Sweet potato and potato is an example of analogy
4Homology indicates common ancestry
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2022

Which of the following is a correct statement?

1Mycoplasma have DNA, ribosome and cell wall.
2Cyanobacteria are a group of autotrophic organisms classified under kingdom Monera.
3Bacteria are exclusively heterotrophic organisms.
4Slime moulds are saprophytic organisms classified under Kingdom Monera.
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2021

Select the correct pair. 141. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

1Loose parenchyma cells - Spongy (1) Cyclic photophosphorylation involves both PS I rupturing the epidermis parenchyma and PS II and forming a lens shaped opening in bark
2Both ATP and NADPH + H+ are synthesized (2) Large colorless empty - Subsidiary cells during non-cyclic photophosphorylation cells in the epidermis
3Stroma lamellae have PS I only and lack NADP of grass leaves reductase (3) In dicot leaves, vascular - Conjunctive bundles are surrounded tissue
4Grana lamellae have both PS I and PS II by large thick-walled cells
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2021

In the exponential growth equation N = N ert, e t o

1(iv) (iii) (ii) (i) represents (1) The base of geometric logarithms
2(ii) (iv) (i) (iii) (2) The base of number logarithms
3(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (3) The base of exponential logarithms
4(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) The base of natural logarithms
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

‚Ÿ˜ 1987 ◊ ◊ÊÚÁã≈˛Uÿ‹ ¬˝Ê ≈UÊ ∑§ÊÚ‹ Á∑§‚ ¬⁄U ÁŸÿ òÊáÊ ∑ § Á‹∞ 101. Montreal protocol was signed in 1987 for control „SÃÊˇÊÁ⁄Uà Á∑§ÿÊ ªÿÊ ÕÊ? of :

1e-fl S≈U (e-∑ͧ«∏Ê ∑§⁄U∑§≈U) ∑§Ê ÁŸ¬≈UÊŸ (1) Disposal of e-wastes
2∞∑§ Œ ‡Ê ‚ ŒÍ‚⁄ U Œ ‡Ê ◊ •ÊŸÈfl Á‡Ê∑§Ã— M§¬Ê ÃÁ⁄Uà ¡ËflÊ (2) Transport of Genetically modified organisms ∑ § ¬Á⁄Ufl„Ÿ ∑ § Á‹∞ from one country to another
3•Ê $¡Ê Ÿ ∑§Ê ˇÊÁà ¬„ȰøÊŸ flÊ‹ ¬ŒÊÕÊ Z ∑§Ê ©à‚¡¸Ÿ (3) Emission of ozone depleting substances
4„Á⁄Uà ªÎ„ ªÒ‚Ê ∑§Ê ¿UÊ «∏ŸÊ (4) Release of Green House gases H3 24 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

ÉÊÊ‚ ÷ÍÁ◊ ¬ÊÁ⁄UÃãòÊ ◊ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄UÊ ∑ § ‚ÊÕ ¡ÊÁÃÿÊ ∑ § ‚„Ë 108. Match the trophic levels with their correct species ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊ ∑§Ê ‚È◊ Á‹Ã ∑§ËÁ¡∞– examples in grassland ecosystem. (a) øÃÈÕ¸ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (i) ∑§ÊflÒ Ê (a) Fourth trophic level (i) Crow (b) ÁmÃËÿ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (ii) Áªh (b) Second trophic level (ii) Vulture (c) ¬˝Õ◊ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (iii) π⁄UªÊ ‡Ê (c) First trophic level (iii) Rabbit (d) ÃÎÃËÿ ¬Ê Ë SÃ⁄U (iv) ÉÊÊ‚ (d) Third trophic level (iv) Grass ‚„Ë Áfl∑§À¬ øÈÁŸ∞ — Select the correct option : (a) (b) (c) (d) (a) (b) (c) (d)

1(i) (ii) (iii) (iv) (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
2(ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
3(iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
4(iv) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) H3 26 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

∞∑§ ¬ÊÁ⁄UÃãòÊ ◊ ‚∑§‹ ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •ÊÒ⁄U Ÿ ≈U ¬˝ÊÕÁ◊∑§ (4) They are useful in genetic engineering. ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ∑ § ‚ ’㜠◊ , ÁŸêŸÁ‹Áπà ◊ ‚ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ê ∑§ÕŸ ‚„Ë 113. In relation to Gross primary productivity and Net „Ò? primary productivity of an ecosystem, which one

1‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •Ê⁄Ò U Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ of the following statements is correct ? ∑ § ’Ëø ∑§Ê ߸ ‚ê’㜠Ÿ„Ë „Ò– (1) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary
2‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ‚ŒflÒ Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ productivity. ‚ ∑§◊ „Ê ÃË „Ò– (2) Gross primary productivity is always less
3‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ ‚ŒflÒ Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ than net primary productivity. ‚ •Áœ∑§ „Ê ÃË „Ò– (3) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
4‚∑§‹ ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ •Ê⁄Ò U Ÿ≈ U ¬Ê˝ÕÁ◊∑§ ©à¬ÊŒ∑§ÃÊ (4) Gross primary productivity and Net primary ∞∑§ „Ë „Ò •ÊÒ⁄U •Á÷ÛÊ „Ò– productivity are one and same. Hindi+English 27 H3
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

• ≈UÊ∑¸˜§Á≈U∑§ ˇÊ òÊ ◊ Á„◊-• œÃÊ Á∑§‚ ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ „Ê ÃË „Ò? temperature

1•fl⁄UÄà Á∑§⁄UáÊÊ mÊ⁄UÊ ⁄ U≈UËŸÊ ◊ ˇÊÁà (3) Inflammation of cornea due to high dose of UV-B radiation
2ÁŸêŸ Ãʬ mÊ⁄UÊ •ʰπ ◊ Œ˝fl ∑ § ¡◊Ÿ ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ (4) High reflection of light from snow
3UV-B ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ∑§Ë ©ìÊ ◊ÊòÊÊ ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ ∑§ÊÚÁŸ¸ÿÊ ∑§Ê ‡ÊÊÕ 118. Strobili or cones are found in : (1) Equisetum
4Á„◊ ‚ ¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê ∑§Ê ©ìÊ ¬⁄UÊfløŸ (2) Salvinia
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

Name the plant growth regulator which upon 127. ©‚ flÎÁh ÁŸÿ òÊ∑§ ∑§Ê ŸÊ◊ ’ÃÊßÿ Á¡‚ ªÛÊ ∑§Ë »§‚‹ ¬⁄U spraying on sugarcane crop, increases the length Á¿U«∏∑§Ÿ ‚ ©‚∑ § ß ∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸ ◊ ’…∏Ê ûÊ⁄UË „Ê ÃË „Ò, ÃÕÊ ªÛÊ of stem, thus increasing the yield of sugarcane crop. ∑ § »§‚‹ ∑§Ë ¬ÒŒÊflÊ⁄U ’…∏ÃË „Ò–

1Abscisic acid (1) ∞ é‚ËÁ‚∑§ •ê‹
2Cytokinin (2) ‚Êß≈UÊ ∑§Êߟ˟
3Gibberellin (3) Á¡’⁄ U‹ËŸ
4Ethylene (4) ∞ÁÕ‹ËŸ
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Population growth, interactions, ecosystem, biodiversity, conservation, pollution

RecallMedium

Common distractors

population interaction type confusion

Six interaction types form a 2x2 effect matrix (+,+), (+,-), (+,0), (-,-), (-,0), (0,0). Students who have memorised the symbols cannot always assign real organism pairs correctly: barnacles on a whale body = commensalism (+,0) not mutualism (+,+); mycorrhizal fungi on plant roots = mutualism not parasitism. The most common error is selecting mutualism for commensalism examples because both organisms are 'associated'.

ecological pyramid inversion error

Students learn that 'ecological pyramids can be inverted' from the examples of the number pyramid (tree-insects-birds) and the ocean biomass pyramid. They over-apply this to energy pyramids. The 10% law guarantees that energy ALWAYS decreases at each trophic level -- no realistic scenario inverts the energy pyramid. Questions ask which pyramid type 'can be inverted'; students select energy because they generalise the inversion rule.

k r selection confusion

K-selected species (large body, few offspring, high parental investment, long-lived: whales, humans, elephants) are confused with r-selected (small body, many offspring, no parental care: insects, frogs, bacteria). Students who associate 'reproducing as humans do = normal' call humans r-selected, or who associate 'complex animal = cared-for offspring' call oysters K-selected.

speciation type confusion

Sympatric speciation occurs in the same geographic area without physical isolation (e.g., polyploidy); allopatric speciation requires a geographic barrier. Students who cannot recall the Greek roots (sym = same, allo = different) confuse the two when a question describes a real-world scenario and asks which speciation type it illustrates.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 16, p.302

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