Human Genome Project

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Structural Organisation in AnimalsPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Here is a trap that costs marks on this topic: confusing the goals and methodology of the Human Genome Project with DNA fingerprinting, or mixing up their key numerical facts.

Human Genome Project (HGP) was a 13-year international effort (1990–2003) coordinated by the US Department of Energy and the National Institutes of Health. The goal was to sequence all approximately 3.2 billion base pairs of the human genome and identify all genes (estimated ~20,000–25,000). NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 5 (Molecular Basis of Inheritance), page 120, covers HGP's salient features: only ~2% of the genome codes for proteins; repetitive sequences make up a large portion; the average gene size is about 3,000 bases; chromosome 1 has the most genes, Y chromosome the fewest.

DNA fingerprinting exploits the variability in repetitive DNA sequences (VNTRs — Variable Number Tandem Repeats, or STRs — Short Tandem Repeats) between individuals. The technique, developed by Alec Jeffreys, involves restriction digestion, gel electrophoresis, Southern blotting, and hybridisation with labelled VNTR probes to produce a unique banding pattern. It is used in forensic identification, paternity disputes, and evolutionary studies.

Where NEET catches you: Questions test precise recall — the number of base pairs in the human genome, which chromosome has the most/fewest genes, the percentage of coding DNA, the year HGP completed, and the principle underlying DNA fingerprinting (polymorphism in repetitive sequences, NOT coding sequences). The common confusion is stating that DNA fingerprinting analyses coding gene sequences; it does not — it targets non-coding repetitive DNA.

Watch out for stems that ask "the basis of DNA fingerprinting" — the answer is polymorphism in repetitive (satellite) DNA, not SNPs in coding regions.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

The Human Genome Project was completed in which year?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

Approximately what percentage of the human genome codes for proteins?

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Which human chromosome has been reported to have the most genes?

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

DNA fingerprinting is based on the variability found in which type of DNA sequences?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

Which of the following is NOT a goal of the Human Genome Project?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

In DNA fingerprinting, after restriction digestion and gel electrophoresis, the separated DNA fragments are transferred onto a membrane. This technique is called:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A student claims that since the Human Genome Project sequenced all human DNA, every individual's genome is now known. What is the flaw in this reasoning?

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

In a forensic investigation, DNA fingerprinting of a crime scene sample and four suspects gave the following VNTR banding patterns. The crime scene sample shows bands at positions 2, 5, and 8. Suspect A shows bands at 2, 5, 8; Suspect B at 1, 5, 8; Suspect C at 2, 5, 7; Suspect D at 3, 5, 9. Which suspect's DNA matches the crime scene sample?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A forensic lab receives a blood sample from a crime scene. DNA is extracted and subjected to restriction enzyme digestion. After gel electrophoresis and Southern blotting, hybridisation with a VNTR probe reveals bands at 4 different positions. Five suspects are tested. Suspect X shows bands at all 4 matching positions plus one additional band.

  2. 2

    Required

    Can Suspect X be identified as the source of the crime scene DNA?

  3. 3

    Concept

    DNA fingerprinting compares VNTR banding patterns. A match requires that every band in the evidence sample is present in the suspect's profile. The principle is based on polymorphism in repetitive (satellite) DNA, per NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 5, page 120. This connects to PYQ pattern NEET pattern: unit bundle, which tests recall and direct application of DNA fingerprinting principles.

  4. 4

    Formula / Rule

    For a positive match: every band in the evidence profile must appear in the suspect's profile. Additional bands in the suspect's profile do not exclude a match (the crime scene sample may be a partial profile due to degradation).

  5. 5

    Substitution

    Evidence bands: positions A, B, C, D (4 bands). Suspect X bands: positions A, B, C, D, E (5 bands — all 4 evidence bands present plus one extra).

  6. 6

    Calculation / Reasoning

    Step (i): Check if all evidence bands are present in suspect → A ✓, B ✓, C ✓, D ✓. Step (ii): The extra band (E) in Suspect X could mean the crime scene sample was partially degraded (lost one band) or that the suspect has heterozygous VNTR alleles producing an extra band at that locus. The key criterion is that all evidence bands must be accounted for — they are.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    Suspect X cannot be excluded as the source. All evidence bands match. However, a definitive forensic conclusion would require statistical analysis of band frequencies in the population to calculate the probability of a random match. In a NEET context, if all bands match, the suspect is identified as the match.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Students often think an extra band in the suspect's profile means "no match." This is incorrect — the crime scene DNA may be degraded. The critical check is whether ALL evidence bands appear in the suspect, not whether the suspect has ONLY those bands. Another common confusion: stating that DNA fingerprinting analyses coding gene sequences. It does not — it targets non-coding repetitive (satellite) DNA.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "In a paternity dispute, the child shows VNTR bands at positions 1, 3, 5, and 7. The mother shows bands at 1, 3, 6, and 9. Which bands in the child must have come from the biological father?" (Answer: bands at positions 5 and 7, since bands 1 and 3 could be maternal.) ---

Before solving, remember these

Human Genome Project (1990-2003): ~3 billion bp; ~20,000-25,000 genes. DNA fingerprinting: VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats); RFLP analysis; PCR amplification; gel electrophoresis. Used in forensics, paternity.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 5, p. 120

Formulas

Mendel's monohybrid ratio

F2 ratio in monohybrid cross — products of independent assortment of two alleles per locus.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
ratioF2 progeny ratio-

Valid when

  • Single gene with complete dominance
  • Pure-bred parents

Mendel's dihybrid ratio

F2 ratio in dihybrid cross with two independently-segregating loci, complete dominance, no linkage.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
ratioF2 phenotype ratio-

Valid when

  • Two unlinked loci
  • Complete dominance

Hardy-Weinberg equation

In an idealised population (no mutation, drift, selection, gene flow, random mating), allele and genotype frequencies remain constant.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
pfreq of dominant allele A-
qfreq of recessive allele a-

Valid when

  • Idealised population
  • All five conditions met
  • Diploid, autosomal, biallelic locus

Recombination frequency (genetic mapping)

Proportion of recombinant offspring measures genetic distance between linked loci. Capped at 50% (independent assortment).

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
RFrecombination frequency%

Valid when

  • Linked loci on same chromosome

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Sign Convention

DNA polymerase synthesises only 5'→3'. Leading strand: continuous, same direction as fork. Lagging: discontinuous (Okazaki), opposite to fork.

When it triggers

Question on Okazaki, leading vs lagging, primer direction.

How to avoid

Reading template 3'→5'; synthesising 5'→3'. Lagging strand needs short fragments because it can't run continuously against fork direction.

Category: Negative Marking

Five forces disturb HW: mutation, gene flow, drift, selection, non-random mating. ANY of these violates equilibrium.

When it triggers

Question asks which factor maintains/disturbs HW.

How to avoid

Random mating + no other forces → equilibrium. ANY of mutation/migration/drift/selection/assortative mating → disequilibrium.

Category: Similar Terms

Monohybrid: genotype 1:2:1 (AA:Aa:aa); phenotype 3:1.

When it triggers

Question asks for one ratio while presenting cross details.

How to avoid

Always note dominance: phenotype merges Aa + AA; genotype keeps them separate.

Category: Similar Terms

X-linked recessive (haemophilia, colour-blindness): affects males predominantly; carrier mother → 50% sons affected; affected father → all daughters carriers but not affected.

When it triggers

Pedigree question; carrier vs affected.

How to avoid

Sex chromosomes: XX vs XY. Recessive on X needs both copies (XaXa) in female, only one (XaY) in male.

Category: Similar Terms

Allopatric: geographic isolation. Sympatric: same area, no physical barrier (e.g. polyploidy in plants, host-shift).

When it triggers

Question gives speciation scenario and asks which type.

How to avoid

If geographic barrier mentioned → allopatric. If population overlaps → sympatric.

Past Year Questions

51 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

1Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules
2Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
3The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
4Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2024

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F generation. 2 C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A, B and C only
2A, C, D and E only
3B, C and D only
4A, B, C, D and E
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2024

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E.coli?

1The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’
2The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
3The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
4The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

1Presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait
2A single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression
3More than two genes affecting a single character
4Presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

1All genes that are expressed as proteins.
2All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
3Certain important expressed genes.
4All genes that are expressed as RNA.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine developement is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1C and D only
2B and E only
3A and E only
4A and B only
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropria

1(c), (d) and (e) only
2(a), (b) and (d) only
3(b) only
4(c) and (d) only
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2021

Match List-I with List-II. (2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction (4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein Answer (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given 127. Which of the following are not secondary below. metabolites in plants? (a) (b) (c) (d)

1Rubber, gums (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2Morphine, codeine (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
3Amino acids, glucose (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) Vinblastin, curcumin
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes 97. ÁŸêŸ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ, ∞ ‚ ¡ËflÊ ∑ § ‚„Ë ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊÊ ∑§Ê ‚ ŒÁ÷¸Ã ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò in environment brought about by anthropogenic ¡Ê ◊ÊŸfl ∑§Ë Á∑˝§ÿÊ•Ê mÊ⁄UÊ flÊÃÊfl⁄UáÊ ◊ ’Œ‹Êfl ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ action ? Áfl∑§Á‚à „È∞ „Ò? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (a) ªÒ‹Ê¬ÒªÊ mˬ ◊ «UÊÁfl¸Ÿ ∑§Ë Á» §ø (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (b) π⁄U¬ÃflÊ⁄UÊ ◊ ‡ÊÊ∑§ŸÊ‡ÊË ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊ œ (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (c) ‚‚Ë◊∑ §ãŒ˝∑§Ê ◊ ŒflÊßÿÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊ œ (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animal

1∑ §fl‹ (d) (1) only (d)
2∑ §fl‹ (a) (2) only (a)
3(a) ∞fl (c) (3) (a) and (c)
4(b), (c) ∞fl (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) Hindi+English 23 H3
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

•ŸÈ‹ πŸ ∑ § ‚◊ÿ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ∑È §«U‹Ë ∑§Ê πÊ ‹Ÿ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ‚Ê

1RNA polymerase ∞ ¡Êß◊ ◊ŒŒ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò?
2DNA ligase (1) •Ê⁄U.∞Ÿ.∞. ¬ÊÚÁ‹◊⁄ U$¡
3DNA helicase
4DNA polymerase (2) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ‹Êߪ $¡ (3) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. „Ò‹Ë∑ §$¡ 117. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to : (4) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ¬ÊÚ‹Ë◊⁄ U$¡ (1) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (2) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

¡ËŸ ‘I’ ¡Ê ABO ⁄UÄà flª¸ ∑§Ê ÁŸÿ òÊáÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò ©‚∑ § ‚ Œ÷¸ 121. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞–

1Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (1) ‘i’ ∞ ‹Ë‹ ∑§Ê ߸ ÷Ë ‡Ê∑¸§⁄UÊ ©à¬ÛÊ Ÿ„Ë ∑§⁄UÃÊ–
2The gene (I) has three alleles. (2) ¡ËŸ (I) ∑ § ÃËŸ ∞ ‹Ë‹ „Ê Ã „Ò –
3A person will have only two of the three (3) ∞∑§ √ÿÁÄà ◊ ÃËŸ ◊ ‚ ∑ §fl‹ ŒÊ ∞ ‹Ë‹ „Ê ª – alleles.
4¡’ IA ∞fl IB ŒÊ ŸÊ ß∑§_ „Ê Ã „Ò , ÿ ∞∑§ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë (4) When IA and IB are present together, they ‡Ê∑¸§⁄UÊ •Á÷√ÿÄà ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – express same type of sugar.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

≈˛UÊ ‚‹ ‡ÊŸ (•ŸÈflÊŒŸ/SÕÊŸÊ Ã⁄UáÊ) ∑§Ë ¬˝Õ◊ •flSÕÊ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë 123. The first phase of translation is : „Ê ÃË „Ò?

1Recognition of an anti-codon (1) ∞∑§ ∞ ≈UË-∑§Ê «UÊÚŸ ∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ
2Binding of mRNA to ribosome (2) ⁄UÊß’Ê ‚Ê ◊ ‚ mRNA ∑§Ê ’㜟
3Recognition of DNA molecule (3) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. •áÊÈ ∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ
4Aminoacylation of tRNA (4) tRNA ∑§Ê ∞ ◊ËŸÊ ∞‚Ë‹ ‡ÊŸ
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

◊ «U‹ Ÿ Sflà òÊ M§¬ ‚ ¬˝¡ŸŸ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ë ◊≈U⁄U ∑ § ¬ÊÒœ ∑§Ë 130. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except Á∑§ÃŸË Á∑§S◊Ê ∑§Ê ÿÈÇ◊Ê ∑ § M§¬ ◊ øÈŸÊ ¡Ê Áfl¬⁄UËà Áfl‡Ê ∑§Ê in one character with contrasting traits ? flÊ‹ ∞∑§ ‹ˇÊáÊ ∑ § •‹ÊflÊ ∞∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ ÕË?

18 (1) 8
24 (2) 4
32 (3) 2
414 (4) 14 H3 30 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Test yourself on this topic with real past-paper questions:

Practice this topic →

Free NEET study resources

Get a structured 30-day study plan and a complete formula booklet — delivered to your inbox instantly.