Mutations Genetic Disorders

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT Structural Organisation in AnimalsPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

A common trap on this topic: confusing when an insertion or deletion causes a frameshift versus when it does not. The rule is simple — any indel NOT divisible by 3 shifts the reading frame. Indels of 3, 6, or 9 bases add or remove whole codons without disrupting the downstream sequence. NEET distractors exploit this by offering "frameshift occurs when 3 bases are deleted" as a plausible-sounding option.

Mutations are heritable changes in genetic material. NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 4, page 89 classifies them broadly as gene (point) mutations and chromosomal aberrations. Point mutations include substitution (one base replaced — transitions or transversions), insertion, and deletion. Chromosomal mutations involve larger structural changes: deletion, duplication, inversion, and translocation of chromosome segments. Aneuploidy — gain or loss of individual chromosomes — underlies the three disorders this lesson targets.

Down syndrome (trisomy 21): Three copies of chromosome 21 due to non-disjunction. Karyotype: 47 chromosomes (2n + 1). Features include intellectual disability, short stature, characteristic facial features, and a single palmar crease.

Turner syndrome (45, X0): Monosomy of the X chromosome in females. Karyotype: 45 chromosomes (2n − 1). Features include short stature, webbed neck, infertility due to rudimentary ovaries.

Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY): An extra X chromosome in males. Karyotype: 47 chromosomes (2n + 1). Features include tall stature, gynecomastia, reduced fertility, and small testes.

The key distinction NEET tests: Down syndrome is autosomal aneuploidy; Turner and Klinefelter are sex-chromosome aneuploidies. A second frequent test point: whether the disorder adds or loses a chromosome — Turner is monosomy (one fewer), while Down and Klinefelter are trisomy (one extra).

Watch out for distractors that swap chromosome numbers (e.g., claiming Turner has 47 chromosomes) or assign the wrong type of aneuploidy to a disorder.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of which chromosome?

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

What is the total chromosome number in a person with Turner syndrome?

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Klinefelter syndrome has which of the following karyotypes?

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A deletion of 5 nucleotides occurs in a coding region. Which of the following best describes the effect on the reading frame?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

An insertion of 6 nucleotides occurs in a gene's coding sequence. What happens to the reading frame downstream of the insertion?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

Which of the following correctly distinguishes Down syndrome from Turner syndrome?

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A point mutation replaces one purine with another purine in a gene. This type of substitution is called:

MCQ 8Concept TrapPractice

A child is born with 47 chromosomes and exhibits gynecomastia, tall stature, and small testes. The underlying chromosomal abnormality is most likely:

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A woman who is phenotypically normal gives birth to a child with Down syndrome. Karyotyping reveals the child has 47 chromosomes with three copies of chromosome 21.

  2. 2

    Required

    Identify the type of mutation, the mechanism that caused it, and the stage of cell division where the error most likely occurred.

  3. 3

    Concept

    Down syndrome is caused by aneuploidy — specifically trisomy 21. Aneuploidy results from non-disjunction, the failure of homologous chromosomes (meiosis I) or sister chromatids (meiosis II) to separate properly during cell division. NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 4, page 89 documents this mechanism.

  4. 4

    Formula / Rule

    Normal gamete: n = 23 chromosomes. Non-disjunction produces gametes with n + 1 = 24 or n − 1 = 22. Fertilisation of an n + 1 gamete by a normal n gamete yields 2n + 1 = 47.

  5. 5

    Substitution

    The child received a gamete carrying 24 chromosomes (with two copies of chromosome 21) from one parent and a normal gamete with 23 chromosomes from the other parent. Total: 24 + 23 = 47.

  6. 6

    Calculation

    47 chromosomes total. Three copies of chromosome 21 confirmed by karyotype. This is trisomy (2n + 1).

  7. 7

    Final answer

    The child has trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), caused by non-disjunction during meiosis in one of the parents. The most common origin is non-disjunction during maternal meiosis I, though it can also occur at meiosis II or (rarely) during paternal meiosis.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Confusing trisomy (2n + 1 = 47) with triploidy (3n = 69). Triploidy means an entire extra set of chromosomes, which is almost always lethal. Trisomy is the gain of just one extra chromosome. NEET distractors sometimes offer "triploidy" as an option when the question describes a single extra chromosome.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    A male infant is karyotyped and found to have 47 chromosomes with the sex-chromosome complement XXY. Identify the syndrome, state whether it is autosomal or sex-chromosomal aneuploidy, and name the mechanism responsible. *(Answer: Klinefelter syndrome; sex-chromosome aneuploidy; caused by non-disjunction producing an XX gamete that was fertilised by a Y-bearing gamete, or an XY gamete fertilised by an X-bearing gamete.)* ---

Before solving, remember these

Mendelian: sickle cell anaemia (autosomal recessive), thalassaemia, phenylketonuria, haemophilia (X-linked recessive). Chromosomal: Down syndrome (trisomy 21), Klinefelter (XXY), Turner (XO).

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 4, p. 89

Formulas

Mendel's monohybrid ratio

F2 ratio in monohybrid cross — products of independent assortment of two alleles per locus.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
ratioF2 progeny ratio-

Valid when

  • Single gene with complete dominance
  • Pure-bred parents

Mendel's dihybrid ratio

F2 ratio in dihybrid cross with two independently-segregating loci, complete dominance, no linkage.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
ratioF2 phenotype ratio-

Valid when

  • Two unlinked loci
  • Complete dominance

Hardy-Weinberg equation

In an idealised population (no mutation, drift, selection, gene flow, random mating), allele and genotype frequencies remain constant.

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
pfreq of dominant allele A-
qfreq of recessive allele a-

Valid when

  • Idealised population
  • All five conditions met
  • Diploid, autosomal, biallelic locus

Recombination frequency (genetic mapping)

Proportion of recombinant offspring measures genetic distance between linked loci. Capped at 50% (independent assortment).

SymbolQuantitySI Unit
RFrecombination frequency%

Valid when

  • Linked loci on same chromosome

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Sign Convention

DNA polymerase synthesises only 5'→3'. Leading strand: continuous, same direction as fork. Lagging: discontinuous (Okazaki), opposite to fork.

When it triggers

Question on Okazaki, leading vs lagging, primer direction.

How to avoid

Reading template 3'→5'; synthesising 5'→3'. Lagging strand needs short fragments because it can't run continuously against fork direction.

Category: Negative Marking

Five forces disturb HW: mutation, gene flow, drift, selection, non-random mating. ANY of these violates equilibrium.

When it triggers

Question asks which factor maintains/disturbs HW.

How to avoid

Random mating + no other forces → equilibrium. ANY of mutation/migration/drift/selection/assortative mating → disequilibrium.

Category: Similar Terms

Monohybrid: genotype 1:2:1 (AA:Aa:aa); phenotype 3:1.

When it triggers

Question asks for one ratio while presenting cross details.

How to avoid

Always note dominance: phenotype merges Aa + AA; genotype keeps them separate.

Category: Similar Terms

X-linked recessive (haemophilia, colour-blindness): affects males predominantly; carrier mother → 50% sons affected; affected father → all daughters carriers but not affected.

When it triggers

Pedigree question; carrier vs affected.

How to avoid

Sex chromosomes: XX vs XY. Recessive on X needs both copies (XaXa) in female, only one (XaY) in male.

Category: Similar Terms

Allopatric: geographic isolation. Sympatric: same area, no physical barrier (e.g. polyploidy in plants, host-shift).

When it triggers

Question gives speciation scenario and asks which type.

How to avoid

If geographic barrier mentioned → allopatric. If population overlaps → sympatric.

Past Year Questions

51 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2025

Identify the statement that is NOT correct.

1Constant region of heavy and light chains are located at C-terminus of antibody molecules
2Each antibody has two light and two heavy chains.
3The heavy and light chains are held together by disulfide bonds.
4Antigen binding site is located at C-terminal region of antibody molecules.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2025

Given below are two statements : Statement I : In the RNA world, RNA is considered the first genetic material evolved to carry out essential life processes. RNA acts as a genetic material and also as a catalyst for some important biochemical reactions in living systems. Being reactive, RNA is unstable. Statement II : DNA evolved from RNA and is a more stable genetic material. Its double helical strands being complementary, resist changes by evolving repairing mechanism. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
2Both statement I and statement II are correct
3Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2024

Which one of the following can be explained on the basis of Mendel's Law of Dominance? A. Out of one pair of factors one is dominant and the other is recessive. B. Alleles do not show any expression and both the characters appear as such in F generation. 2 C. Factors occur in pairs in normal diploid plants. D. The discrete unit controlling a particular character is called factor. E. The expression of only one of the parental characters is found in a monohybrid cross. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1A, B and C only
2A, C, D and E only
3B, C and D only
4A, B, C, D and E
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2024

Which of the following statement is correct regarding the process of replication in E.coli?

1The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction that is 3’ → 5’
2The DNA dependent RNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in one direction, that is 5’ → 3’
3The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ as well as 3’ → 5’ direction
4The DNA dependent DNA polymerase catalyses polymerization in 5’ → 3’ direction
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

The phenomenon of pleiotropism refers to

1Presence of two alleles, each of the two genes controlling a single trait
2A single gene affecting multiple phenotypic expression
3More than two genes affecting a single character
4Presence of several alleles of a single gene controlling a single crossover
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2023

Expressed Sequence Tags (ESTs) refers to

1All genes that are expressed as proteins.
2All genes whether expressed or unexpressed.
3Certain important expressed genes.
4All genes that are expressed as RNA.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2023

Which of the following statements are correct about Klinefelter’s Syndrome? A. This disorder was first described by Langdon Down (1866). B. Such an individual has overall masculine development. However, the feminine developement is also expressed. C. The affected individual is short statured. D. Physical, psychomotor and mental development is retarded. E. Such individuals are sterile. Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1C and D only
2B and E only
3A and E only
4A and B only
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : Statement I : Mendel studied seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plants and proposed the Laws of Inheritance. Statement II : Seven characters examined by Mendel in his experiment on pea plants were seed shape and colour, flower colour, pod shape and colour, flower position and stem height. In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Statements related to human Insulin are given below. Which statement(s) is/are correct about genetically engineered Insulin? (a) Pro-hormone insulin contain extra stretch of C-peptide (b) A-peptide and B-peptide chains of insulin were produced separately in E.coli, extracted and combined by creating disulphide bond between them. (c) Insulin used for treating Diabetes was extracted from Cattles and Pigs. (d) Pro-hormone Insulin needs to be processed for converting into a mature and functional hormone. (e) Some patients develop allergic reactions to the foreign insulin. Choose the most appropria

1(c), (d) and (e) only
2(a), (b) and (d) only
3(b) only
4(c) and (d) only
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2021

Match List-I with List-II. (2) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Transduction; (d)-Protein (3) (a)-Translation; (b)-Replication; (c)-Transcription;(d)-Transduction (4) (a)-Replication; (b)-Transcription; (c)-Translation; (d)-Protein Answer (4) Choose the correct answer from the options given 127. Which of the following are not secondary below. metabolites in plants? (a) (b) (c) (d)

1Rubber, gums (1) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
2Morphine, codeine (2) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
3Amino acids, glucose (3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
4(iii) (i) (iv) (ii) (4) Vinblastin, curcumin
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

Which of the following refer to correct example(s) of organisms which have evolved due to changes 97. ÁŸêŸ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ, ∞ ‚ ¡ËflÊ ∑ § ‚„Ë ©ŒÊ„⁄UáÊÊ ∑§Ê ‚ ŒÁ÷¸Ã ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò in environment brought about by anthropogenic ¡Ê ◊ÊŸfl ∑§Ë Á∑˝§ÿÊ•Ê mÊ⁄UÊ flÊÃÊfl⁄UáÊ ◊ ’Œ‹Êfl ∑ § ∑§Ê⁄UáÊ action ? Áfl∑§Á‚à „È∞ „Ò? (a) Darwin’s Finches of Galapagos islands. (a) ªÒ‹Ê¬ÒªÊ mˬ ◊ «UÊÁfl¸Ÿ ∑§Ë Á» §ø (b) Herbicide resistant weeds. (b) π⁄U¬ÃflÊ⁄UÊ ◊ ‡ÊÊ∑§ŸÊ‡ÊË ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊ œ (c) Drug resistant eukaryotes. (c) ‚‚Ë◊∑ §ãŒ˝∑§Ê ◊ ŒflÊßÿÊ ∑§Ê ¬˝ÁÃ⁄UÊ œ (d) Man-created breeds of domesticated animal

1∑ §fl‹ (d) (1) only (d)
2∑ §fl‹ (a) (2) only (a)
3(a) ∞fl (c) (3) (a) and (c)
4(b), (c) ∞fl (d) (4) (b), (c) and (d) Hindi+English 23 H3
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

•ŸÈ‹ πŸ ∑ § ‚◊ÿ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ∑È §«U‹Ë ∑§Ê πÊ ‹Ÿ ◊ ∑§ÊÒŸ‚Ê

1RNA polymerase ∞ ¡Êß◊ ◊ŒŒ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò?
2DNA ligase (1) •Ê⁄U.∞Ÿ.∞. ¬ÊÚÁ‹◊⁄ U$¡
3DNA helicase
4DNA polymerase (2) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ‹Êߪ $¡ (3) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. „Ò‹Ë∑ §$¡ 117. Snow-blindness in Antarctic region is due to : (4) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ¬ÊÚ‹Ë◊⁄ U$¡ (1) Damage to retina caused by infra-red rays (2) Freezing of fluids in the eye by low
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

¡ËŸ ‘I’ ¡Ê ABO ⁄UÄà flª¸ ∑§Ê ÁŸÿ òÊáÊ ∑§⁄UÃÊ „Ò ©‚∑ § ‚ Œ÷¸ 121. Identify the wrong statement with reference to the gene ‘I’ that controls ABO blood groups. ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞–

1Allele ‘i’ does not produce any sugar. (1) ‘i’ ∞ ‹Ë‹ ∑§Ê ߸ ÷Ë ‡Ê∑¸§⁄UÊ ©à¬ÛÊ Ÿ„Ë ∑§⁄UÃÊ–
2The gene (I) has three alleles. (2) ¡ËŸ (I) ∑ § ÃËŸ ∞ ‹Ë‹ „Ê Ã „Ò –
3A person will have only two of the three (3) ∞∑§ √ÿÁÄà ◊ ÃËŸ ◊ ‚ ∑ §fl‹ ŒÊ ∞ ‹Ë‹ „Ê ª – alleles.
4¡’ IA ∞fl IB ŒÊ ŸÊ ß∑§_ „Ê Ã „Ò , ÿ ∞∑§ ¬˝∑§Ê⁄U ∑§Ë (4) When IA and IB are present together, they ‡Ê∑¸§⁄UÊ •Á÷√ÿÄà ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – express same type of sugar.
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

≈˛UÊ ‚‹ ‡ÊŸ (•ŸÈflÊŒŸ/SÕÊŸÊ Ã⁄UáÊ) ∑§Ë ¬˝Õ◊ •flSÕÊ ∑§ÊÒŸ ‚Ë 123. The first phase of translation is : „Ê ÃË „Ò?

1Recognition of an anti-codon (1) ∞∑§ ∞ ≈UË-∑§Ê «UÊÚŸ ∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ
2Binding of mRNA to ribosome (2) ⁄UÊß’Ê ‚Ê ◊ ‚ mRNA ∑§Ê ’㜟
3Recognition of DNA molecule (3) «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. •áÊÈ ∑§Ë ¬„øÊŸ
4Aminoacylation of tRNA (4) tRNA ∑§Ê ∞ ◊ËŸÊ ∞‚Ë‹ ‡ÊŸ
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)
NEET 2020

◊ «U‹ Ÿ Sflà òÊ M§¬ ‚ ¬˝¡ŸŸ ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹Ë ◊≈U⁄U ∑ § ¬ÊÒœ ∑§Ë 130. How many true breeding pea plant varieties did Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except Á∑§ÃŸË Á∑§S◊Ê ∑§Ê ÿÈÇ◊Ê ∑ § M§¬ ◊ øÈŸÊ ¡Ê Áfl¬⁄UËà Áfl‡Ê ∑§Ê in one character with contrasting traits ? flÊ‹ ∞∑§ ‹ˇÊáÊ ∑ § •‹ÊflÊ ∞∑§ ‚◊ÊŸ ÕË?

18 (1) 8
24 (2) 4
32 (3) 2
414 (4) 14 H3 30 Hindi+English
NTA Answer: Option 4(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 4, p.89

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