Rdna Principles

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT BiomoleculesPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

Recombinant DNA technology rests on one foundational principle: a DNA fragment from any organism can be inserted into a self-replicating DNA molecule (a vector) and propagated inside a host cell. This is possible because DNA is chemically universal — the same four bases, the same phosphodiester backbone, the same base-pairing rules operate across all life forms. A restriction enzyme that recognises GAATTC in human DNA will recognise GAATTC in bacterial DNA just as faithfully (NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 10, page 216).

The principle has three conceptual pillars that NEET questions target:

1. Cutting and joining are separate, specific events. Restriction endonucleases cut DNA at defined palindromic sequences. DNA ligase seals the sugar-phosphate backbone. These are not interchangeable — confusing their roles is a common NEET distractor strategy.

2. A vector is not just any DNA — it must replicate autonomously. Plasmids, bacteriophages, and cosmids qualify because they carry an origin of replication (ori). A random DNA fragment ligated to another random fragment will not propagate — it needs the ori-containing vector backbone.

3. The recombinant molecule must be introduced into a competent host. Transformation (chemical/heat shock), transfection, and microinjection are delivery methods. The host cell's own replication machinery then copies the recombinant DNA along with the vector.

A frequent NEET approach is to present a list of molecular tools and ask which one performs a specific step. The principle-level understanding tested here is whether you can distinguish the role of each tool within the overall rDNA workflow — not the detailed mechanism of any single tool (those belong to neighbouring topics on restriction enzymes, vectors, and PCR).

Watch out: questions on "principles of rDNA technology" often test whether you understand why the technique works (chemical universality of DNA, palindromic recognition, autonomous replication of vectors) rather than how to perform a specific protocol step.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

The basis of recombinant DNA technology is that DNA from different organisms can be combined because:

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

Which of the following is a necessary feature of a cloning vector used in recombinant DNA technology?

MCQ 3Easy RecallPractice

Palindromic nucleotide sequences in DNA are significant in recombinant DNA technology because they are:

MCQ 4Direct ApplicationPractice

A researcher wants to insert a human gene into a plasmid vector. Both the human DNA and the plasmid are cut with the same restriction enzyme that produces sticky ends. What enzyme is then required to seal the human gene into the plasmid?

MCQ 5Direct ApplicationPractice

If a plasmid vector lacks an origin of replication (ori) but contains a selectable marker and a cloning site, what will happen when recombinant DNA is introduced into a host bacterium?

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

In recombinant DNA technology, the term "competent host cell" refers to a cell that:

MCQ 7Concept TrapPractice

A student claims: "Any two DNA fragments can be joined using DNA ligase, even if they were cut by different restriction enzymes producing incompatible ends." This claim is:

MCQ 8CalculationPractice

A circular plasmid of 4.0 kb has a single EcoRI site at position 1.0 kb. A linear insert of 2.0 kb with EcoRI-compatible sticky ends is ligated into this site. The resulting recombinant plasmid is then cut with a second enzyme, HindIII, which has a single site at position 3.0 kb on the original plasmid (no HindIII site exists within the insert). How many linear fragment(s) will result from the HindIII digestion?

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    - Original circular plasmid: 4.2 kb, one EcoRI site, one BamHI site - BamHI site is 1.5 kb clockwise from EcoRI site on original plasmid - Insert: 3.5 kb, no internal EcoRI or BamHI sites - Recombinant plasmid formed by EcoRI ligation

  2. 2

    Required

    Number and sizes of fragments after double digestion (EcoRI + BamHI).

  3. 3

    Concept

    A circular DNA molecule cut at n sites produces n linear fragments. The insert disrupts the original EcoRI site region: upon ligation, the insert sits between the two original EcoRI half-sites. The recombinant plasmid is circular with total size = 4.2 + 3.5 = 7.7 kb. It has one EcoRI site on each side of the insert (reconstituted during ligation) and one BamHI site — wait: actually, when a fragment is inserted into a single EcoRI site, the single site is consumed and two EcoRI sites are reconstituted (one at each insert-vector junction). So the recombinant has 2 EcoRI sites + 1 BamHI site = 3 cut sites total.

  4. 4

    Formula/Principle

    Number of fragments from cutting a circular molecule = number of distinct cut sites.

  5. 5

    Substitution

    Total cut sites = 2 (EcoRI, at each end of the insert) + 1 (BamHI) = 3. Recombinant plasmid total = 7.7 kb (circular). Map positions clockwise on the recombinant circle: - EcoRI site 1 (left junction of insert): position 0 - Insert spans 0 to 3.5 kb - EcoRI site 2 (right junction): position 3.5 kb - BamHI site was 1.5 kb clockwise from the original EcoRI on the vector backbone. Since the insert (3.5 kb) was added at the EcoRI site, the BamHI site is now at position 3.5 + 1.5 = 5.0 kb from EcoRI site 1 (clockwise).

  6. 6

    Calculation

    Three cuts on a 7.7 kb circle produce 3 fragments: - Fragment 1: EcoRI site 1 → EcoRI site 2 = 3.5 kb (this is the insert) - Fragment 2: EcoRI site 2 → BamHI site = 1.5 kb (vector segment) - Fragment 3: BamHI site → EcoRI site 1 = 7.7 − 3.5 − 1.5 = 2.7 kb (remaining vector segment) Check: 3.5 + 1.5 + 2.7 = 7.7 kb ✓ All values here (4.2, 3.5, 1.5) are problem-defined exact quantities — they do not limit significant figures in this context since this is a mapping problem, not a measurement calculation.

  7. 7

    Final answer

    3 fragments: 3.5 kb, 2.7 kb, and 1.5 kb.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    A frequent error is forgetting that inserting a fragment into a single restriction site reconstitutes TWO sites (one at each junction), not one. If you count only one EcoRI site, you get 2 fragments instead of 3 — and the sizes are wrong.

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    A 5.0 kb plasmid has single sites for EcoRI and BamHI, separated by 2.0 kb. A 1.8 kb gene with EcoRI-compatible ends is cloned into the EcoRI site. How many fragments result from double digestion with EcoRI + BamHI? (Answer: 3 fragments — 1.8 kb, 2.0 kb, 3.0 kb.) ---

Before solving, remember these

Recombinant DNA: isolation of DNA → fragmentation by restriction enzymes → ligation into vector → host transformation → screening → expression. First rDNA: Cohen + Boyer 1972 (E. coli antibiotic resistance gene).

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 10, p. 216

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

Bt: insect resistance (Cry toxin). RNAi: nematode resistance via gene silencing. Herbicide-tolerant: bar/EPSPS gene.

When it triggers

Question on which gene/strategy gives which trait.

How to avoid

Cry → insects. RNAi → nematodes. EPSPS → herbicide tolerance.

Category: Similar Terms

PCR amplifies (makes copies); blotting transfers + visualises specific bands. Different stages of analysis.

When it triggers

Question asks which technique amplifies vs detects.

How to avoid

Amplify = PCR. Detect specific = blot (Southern DNA, Northern RNA, Western protein).

Category: Similar Terms

Restriction enzymes CUT at recognition sites; ligase JOINS sticky ends with phosphodiester bonds; polymerase synthesises strands.

When it triggers

Question asks which tool performs which step.

How to avoid

Cut = restriction. Paste = ligase. Copy = polymerase. Cohen-Boyer used EcoRI + ligase for first rDNA.

Past Year Questions

26 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2024

The following diagram shown restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ gens :

1The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
2The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
3The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to antibiotics.
4Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognitions sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

¬˝ÁÃ’ œŸ ∞ ¡Êß◊Ê ∑ § Áfl ÿ ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞– (4) After zygote formation

1Áø¬Áø¬ Á‚⁄ U «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ‹Êߪ ¡ mÊ⁄UÊ ¡Ê «∏ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò – 112. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
2¬˝àÿ ∑§ ¬˝ÁÃ’ œŸ ∞ ¡Êß◊ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸ ∑§Ê (1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ÁŸ⁄UˡÊáÊ ∑§⁄U∑ § ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – ligases.
3ÿ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ‹«∏Ë ∑§Ê ¬ÒÁ‹ã«˛UÊ Á◊∑§ SÕ‹Ê ¬⁄U (2) Each restriction enzyme functions by ∑§Ê≈Uà „Ò – inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
4ÿ •ÊŸÈfl Á‡Ê∑§ ß ¡ËÁŸÿÁ⁄ Uª ◊ ©¬ÿÊ ªË „Ò – sites.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

The sequence that controls the copy number of the 115. ∞∑§ fl Ä≈U⁄U ◊ ‚„‹ÇŸË «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ¬˝Áà ∑§Ë ‚ ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê linked DNA in the vector, is termed : ÁŸÿ ÁòÊà ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?

1Recognition site (1) Á⁄U∑§ÊÚǟˇʟ (¬„øÊŸ) ‚Êß≈U
2Selectable marker
3Ori site (2) øÿŸÿÈÄà ◊Ê∑¸§⁄U
4Palindromic sequence (3) •Ê ⁄UË ‚Êß≈U (4) ¬Ò‹Ë «˛UÊ Á◊∑§ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊ 116. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments 124. ¡ ‹ ß‹ Ä≈˛UÊ »§Ê ⁄ UÁ‚‚ ◊ , ¬ÎÕ∑§ „È∞ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑ § πá«UÊ ∑§Ê can be visualized with the help of : Á∑§‚∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ Œ πÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?

1Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (1) •fl⁄UÄà ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞ÁÕÁ«Uÿ◊ ’˝Ê ◊Êß«U ‚
2Acetocarmine in bright blue light (2) ø◊∑§Ë‹ ŸË‹ ¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê ◊ ∞ ‚Ë≈UÊ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸Ÿ ‚
3Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (3) UV ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞ÁÕÁ«Uÿ◊ ’˝Ê ◊Êß«U ‚
4Acetocarmine in UV radiation (4) UV ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞‚Ë≈UÊ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸Ÿ ‚
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 10, p.216

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