Rdna Process Pcr Blotting

8 MCQs9-step worked example
Source: NCERT BiomoleculesPYQ coverage: NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025Official key: NTA-verifiedLast reviewed: May 2026

Lesson

The trap first: Students confuse the role of PCR with the role of blotting. PCR amplifies — it makes millions of copies of a specific DNA segment. Blotting detects — it separates molecules, transfers them to a membrane, and visualises a specific target using a probe. They are different stages of molecular analysis, and NEET questions routinely test whether you can distinguish "amplify" from "detect."

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction): Invented by Kary Mullis. Uses a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq polymerase, from Thermus aquaticus) to amplify a target DNA sequence in vitro. Each cycle has three steps — denaturation (~95°C), annealing (~55–65°C), and extension (~72°C). Two primers are essential: a forward primer and a reverse primer, each flanking the target region on opposite strands, oriented inward. After n cycles, the target is amplified approximately 2ⁿ times (NCERT Class 12 Biology Chapter 10, page 225).

Gel electrophoresis: Separates DNA fragments by size through an agarose matrix under an electric field. Smaller fragments migrate faster toward the anode. Visualised using ethidium bromide staining under UV.

Blotting techniques:

  • Southern blot — detects a specific DNA sequence (DNA → gel → membrane → DNA probe).
  • Northern blot — detects specific RNA.
  • Western blot — detects specific protein (uses antibodies, not nucleic acid probes).

Watch-out: "Which technique amplifies DNA?" — the answer is always PCR, never a blotting method. Blotting identifies what is already present; PCR generates copies.


Practice MCQs

Select an option to see the explanation. Wrong answers show why your choice was tempting — and name the exact trap it exploits.

MCQ 1Easy RecallPractice

The enzyme used in PCR is isolated from a thermophilic bacterium because it must withstand:

MCQ 2Easy RecallPractice

PCR requires two primers because:

MCQ 3Direct ApplicationPractice

After 10 cycles of PCR starting from a single double-stranded DNA molecule, the approximate number of copies of the target region is:

MCQ 4Easy RecallPractice

In gel electrophoresis of DNA fragments, smaller fragments migrate:

MCQ 5Easy RecallPractice

Southern blotting is used to detect:

MCQ 6Direct ApplicationPractice

A researcher wants to determine whether a patient carries a specific mutant allele. She amplifies the region using PCR, then separates the products by gel electrophoresis. The technique she uses to confirm the identity of the band is:

MCQ 7Easy RecallPractice

During PCR, the step in which primers bind to their complementary sequences on the template DNA is called:

MCQ 8Concept TrapPractice

A student claims that PCR uses only one primer per reaction because "polymerase extends in both directions from a single primer." The error in this reasoning is:

Worked Example

  1. 1

    Given

    A forensic scientist has a blood sample containing trace DNA from a suspect. She needs to determine whether the suspect's DNA contains a specific 500 bp sequence linked to a genetic marker. Available tools: Taq polymerase, primers flanking the 500 bp region, agarose gel apparatus, Southern blot kit with a probe complementary to the 500 bp marker.

  2. 2

    Required

    Identify the correct sequence of techniques and their roles in confirming the presence of the specific 500 bp marker.

  3. 3

    Concept

    PCR amplifies a specific DNA region (defined by primers) to detectable quantities. Gel electrophoresis separates the amplified product by size. Southern blotting confirms sequence identity by probe hybridisation — because a 500 bp band on a gel could be any 500 bp fragment; only probe binding proves it is the target.

  4. 4

    Formula/Rule

    - PCR: 2ⁿ amplification (exponential, *n* = number of cycles) - Gel: migration ∝ 1/log(size) — smaller fragments travel farther - Southern blot: sequence-specific hybridisation (complementary probe binds target)

  5. 5

    Substitution/Application

    1. **PCR** the trace DNA using the two primers → amplify the 500 bp target region. 2. **Gel electrophoresis** → run the PCR product; look for a band at ~500 bp. 3. **Southern blot** → transfer gel to membrane → hybridise with the labelled probe → confirm the 500 bp band IS the marker (not a non-specific product of similar size).

  6. 6

    Calculation/Reasoning

    If PCR runs for 30 cycles: 2³⁰ ≈ 1.07 × 10⁹ copies of the target — sufficient for gel visualisation and blotting. The number 30 is an exact counting integer (does not limit significant figures).

  7. 7

    Final answer

    Correct technique sequence: **PCR → Gel electrophoresis → Southern blotting.** PCR amplifies, gel separates by size, Southern confirms identity. Each technique has a distinct, non-interchangeable role.

  8. 8

    Common trap

    Confusing amplification (PCR) with detection (blotting). A common wrong answer would say "Southern blotting amplifies DNA" or "PCR confirms identity." Remember: **Amplify = PCR. Detect specific sequence = blot.**

  9. 9

    Similar NEET-style question

    "Which of the following correctly pairs the technique with its primary function? (a) PCR — sequence-specific detection (b) Southern blot — DNA amplification (c) Northern blot — RNA detection (d) Western blot — DNA transfer to membrane" Answer: (c). Northern blot detects specific RNA by hybridisation. ---

Before solving, remember these

PCR: denature 94°C → anneal 50-65°C → extend 72°C with Taq pol. Gel electrophoresis: agarose (DNA) or PAGE (proteins) — separation by size in electric field. Southern (DNA), Northern (RNA), Western (protein) blots.

-- NCERT Class 12 Biology, Ch. 10, p. 225

Exam Traps & Common Mistakes

These are the exact patterns that cause wrong answers in NEET. Each trap includes when it triggers and how to avoid it.

Category: Similar Terms

Bt: insect resistance (Cry toxin). RNAi: nematode resistance via gene silencing. Herbicide-tolerant: bar/EPSPS gene.

When it triggers

Question on which gene/strategy gives which trait.

How to avoid

Cry → insects. RNAi → nematodes. EPSPS → herbicide tolerance.

Category: Similar Terms

PCR amplifies (makes copies); blotting transfers + visualises specific bands. Different stages of analysis.

When it triggers

Question asks which technique amplifies vs detects.

How to avoid

Amplify = PCR. Detect specific = blot (Southern DNA, Northern RNA, Western protein).

Category: Similar Terms

Restriction enzymes CUT at recognition sites; ligase JOINS sticky ends with phosphodiester bonds; polymerase synthesises strands.

When it triggers

Question asks which tool performs which step.

How to avoid

Cut = restriction. Paste = ligase. Copy = polymerase. Cohen-Boyer used EcoRI + ligase for first rDNA.

Past Year Questions

26 questions from NEET 2020, 2021, 2022, 2023, 2024, 2025. Answers verified against NTA official keys.

NEET 2024

The following diagram shown restriction sites in E. coli cloning vector pBR322. Find the role of ‘X’ and ‘Y’ gens :

1The gene ‘X’ is responsible for resistance to antibiotics and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
2The gene ‘X’ is responsible for controlling the copy number of the linked DNA and ‘Y’ for protein involved in the replication of Plasmid.
3The gene ‘X’ is for protein involved in replication of Plasmid and ‘Y’ for resistance to antibiotics.
4Gene ’X’ is responsible for recognitions sites and ‘Y’ is responsible for antibiotic resistance
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). Assertion (A) : Polymerase chain reaction is used in DNA amplification. Reason (R) : The ampicillin resistant gene is used as a selectable marker to check transformation In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

1(A) is not correct but (R) is correct
2Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
3Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
4(A) is correct but (R) is not correct
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2022

Given below are two statements: Statement I: Restriction endonucleases recognise specific sequence to cut DNA known as palindromic nucleotide sequence. Statement II: Restriction endonucleases cut the DNA strand a little away from the centre of the palindromic site. In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
2Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
3Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
4Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
NTA Answer: Option 2(final)
NEET 2020

¬˝ÁÃ’ œŸ ∞ ¡Êß◊Ê ∑ § Áfl ÿ ◊ ª‹Ã ∑§ÕŸ ∑§Ê ¬„øÊÁŸ∞– (4) After zygote formation

1Áø¬Áø¬ Á‚⁄ U «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ‹Êߪ ¡ mÊ⁄UÊ ¡Ê «∏ ¡Ê ‚∑§Ã „Ò – 112. Identify the wrong statement with regard to Restriction Enzymes.
2¬˝àÿ ∑§ ¬˝ÁÃ’ œŸ ∞ ¡Êß◊ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ë ‹ê’Ê߸ ∑§Ê (1) Sticky ends can be joined by using DNA ÁŸ⁄UˡÊáÊ ∑§⁄U∑ § ∑§Êÿ¸ ∑§⁄Uà „Ò – ligases.
3ÿ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ‹«∏Ë ∑§Ê ¬ÒÁ‹ã«˛UÊ Á◊∑§ SÕ‹Ê ¬⁄U (2) Each restriction enzyme functions by ∑§Ê≈Uà „Ò – inspecting the length of a DNA sequence. (3) They cut the strand of DNA at palindromic
4ÿ •ÊŸÈfl Á‡Ê∑§ ß ¡ËÁŸÿÁ⁄ Uª ◊ ©¬ÿÊ ªË „Ò – sites.
NTA Answer: Option 1(final)
NEET 2020

The sequence that controls the copy number of the 115. ∞∑§ fl Ä≈U⁄U ◊ ‚„‹ÇŸË «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑§Ë ¬˝Áà ∑§Ë ‚ ÅÿÊ ∑§Ê linked DNA in the vector, is termed : ÁŸÿ ÁòÊà ∑§⁄UŸ flÊ‹ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊ ∑§Ê ÄÿÊ ∑§„Ê ¡ÊÃÊ „Ò?

1Recognition site (1) Á⁄U∑§ÊÚǟˇʟ (¬„øÊŸ) ‚Êß≈U
2Selectable marker
3Ori site (2) øÿŸÿÈÄà ◊Ê∑¸§⁄U
4Palindromic sequence (3) •Ê ⁄UË ‚Êß≈U (4) ¬Ò‹Ë «˛UÊ Á◊∑§ •ŸÈ∑˝§◊ 116. Name the enzyme that facilitates opening of DNA helix during transcription.
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)
NEET 2020

In gel electrophoresis, separated DNA fragments 124. ¡ ‹ ß‹ Ä≈˛UÊ »§Ê ⁄ UÁ‚‚ ◊ , ¬ÎÕ∑§ „È∞ «UË.∞Ÿ.∞. ∑ § πá«UÊ ∑§Ê can be visualized with the help of : Á∑§‚∑§Ë ‚„ÊÿÃÊ ‚ Œ πÊ ¡Ê ‚∑§ÃÊ „Ò?

1Ethidium bromide in infrared radiation (1) •fl⁄UÄà ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞ÁÕÁ«Uÿ◊ ’˝Ê ◊Êß«U ‚
2Acetocarmine in bright blue light (2) ø◊∑§Ë‹ ŸË‹ ¬˝∑§Ê‡Ê ◊ ∞ ‚Ë≈UÊ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸Ÿ ‚
3Ethidium bromide in UV radiation (3) UV ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞ÁÕÁ«Uÿ◊ ’˝Ê ◊Êß«U ‚
4Acetocarmine in UV radiation (4) UV ÁflÁ∑§⁄UáÊ ◊ ∞‚Ë≈UÊ ∑§ÊÁ◊¸Ÿ ‚
NTA Answer: Option 3(final)

How NEET usually asks this

Recurring question shapes from past papers. Each pattern shows why wrong options look tempting.

Sources

NCERT refs: Class 12 Biology Chapter 10, p.225

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