NEET 2026 re-exam Physics answer key with solutions: questions 1–45

By PrepBrix · Published 25 September 2026 · Updated

NEET (UG) 2026 re-examination, 21 June 2026, Test Booklet Code 50. Try each question first, then open the answer. The answer shown is NTA's final key; the explanation is ours, with the NCERT page that carries the fact.

Question 1

A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x axis from x = 0 to x = L. The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as µk(x) = µ0 − αx, where µ0, α are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that µk(L) = 0. The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is nµ0MgL, where g is the acceleration due to gravity. The value of n is:

  1. (1)3
  2. (2)1
  3. (3)1/3
  4. (4)1/2
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

Friction force at position x is f(x) = µk(x)Mg = (µ0 − αx)Mg, and since µk(L)=0, α = µ0/L. Work by friction (magnitude) = ∫0^L (µ0 − αx)Mg dx = µ0MgL − αMgL²/2 = µ0MgL − (µ0/L)Mg(L²/2) = µ0MgL/2. Matching to nµ0MgL gives n = 1/2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) n=3 is not reachable by a natural slip: since µk(x) never exceeds µ0 and falls to 0 by x=L, the friction work must be less than µ0MgL (n<1); a value as large as 3 does not come from any correct-or-slipped integration of this decreasing force
  • (2) treating the friction coefficient as constant at µ0 across the whole path (ignoring that µk decreases to 0 by x=L) gives W=µ0MgL, i.e. n=1
  • (3) assumes µk decreases quadratically with x (average value µ0/3, as for the integral of (1-x/L)²) instead of linearly (average µ0/2), giving n=1/3

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 4 (Laws of Motion), page 60

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Revise the lesson: Work Variable Force

Question 2

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B. The diameter of the spherical molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of the molecules of B. If number densities of the gases A and B are nA and nB, respectively, the correct option is:

  1. (1)nA = nB
  2. (2)nA = 2nB
  3. (3)nA = (1/4)nB
  4. (4)nA = (1/2)nB
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

Mean free path λ = 1/(√2 π d²n). Given λA = λB/2 and dA = 2dB: λA/λB = (dB²nB)/(dA²nA) = 1/2, so dB²nB/(4dB²nA) = 1/2, giving nA = nB/2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) forgets to square the diameter ratio in λ∝1/d² (uses dA/dB=2 instead of (dA/dB)²=4), which gives nA=nB
  • (2) takes the reciprocal of the correctly derived ratio nA=(1/2)nB, giving nA=2nB
  • (3) correctly squares the diameter ratio but wrongly treats the two mean free paths as equal (ignoring that λA=λB/2), giving nA=(1/4)nB

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 12 (Kinetic Theory), page 244

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Revise the lesson: Mean Free Path

Question 3

Needs the figure

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current I(t) is flowing, as shown in the figure. The induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is EP and that for configuration Q is EQ. The ratio EP/EQ is: [Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Two identical inductors L, L in configuration P are in series with a and b being the two ends of just the top inductor (so a–b spans one inductor L); in configuration Q the two identical inductors are in parallel between a and b.

  1. (1)1/4
  2. (2)1/2
  3. (3)1
  4. (4)2
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

In P, a–b spans a single inductor of value L, so EP = L(dI/dt). In Q, two identical inductors L in parallel between a and b combine to Leq = L/2, so EQ = (L/2)(dI/dt). Hence EP/EQ = L/(L/2) = 2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) 1/4 does not follow from a single natural mix-up here: EP can only come out as L(dI/dt) or L/2(dI/dt) depending on how a-b is (mis)read, and EQ likewise as L(dI/dt) or L/2(dI/dt), so the smallest ratio a labelling slip can produce is 1/2, not 1/4
  • (2) wrongly combines Q's two identical inductors as if in series (Leq=2L) instead of parallel (Leq=L/2), giving EP/EQ=L/(2L)=1/2
  • (3) Treats P's single inductor (L) and Q's parallel pair (L/2) as if numerically equal, so EP=EQ, giving EP/EQ=1.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 6 (Electromagnetic Induction), page 168

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Revise the lesson: Self Inductance

Question 4

For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the 5th harmonic of an open-ended pipe is n and that for the 9th harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is m, the ratio n/m is

  1. (1)5/9
  2. (2)9/5
  3. (3)1
  4. (4)3/5
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

In an open pipe, the number of nodes equals the harmonic number, so for the 5th harmonic n = 5. In a pipe closed at one end, only odd harmonics (1st, 3rd, 5th, 7th, 9th,...) exist and the number of nodes for the kth odd harmonic is (k+1)/2; for the 9th harmonic m = 5. So n/m = 5/5 = 1.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) comes from taking m=9 directly as the node count instead of counting nodes for a closed pipe
  • (2) Makes the same node-counting error as option 1 (treating the closed pipe's 9th-harmonic number itself as its node count, m=9) but inverts the fraction to m/n, giving 9/5 instead of 5/9.
  • (4) comes from miscounting the open pipe's node count as 3 instead of 5 (missing two internal nodes) while correctly using m=5 for the closed pipe

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 14 (Waves), page 293

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Revise the lesson: Standing Waves Strings Pipes

Question 5

Consider a long solenoid of length l and radius r. If n is the number of turns per unit length and µ0 is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is:

  1. (1)µ0πn²r²l
  2. (2)µ0n²r²l
  3. (3)(µ0/2π)n²r²l
  4. (4)2µ0πn²r²l
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Flux linkage L = Nφ/i with N = nl turns and φ = BA = µ0niA where A = πr². So L = (nl)(µ0ni·πr²)/i = µ0n²πr²l.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Drops the π factor from the circular cross-section area A=πr² entirely, giving L=µ0n²r²l instead of µ0πn²r²l.
  • (3) Confuses the circular-area factor π with the µ0/(2π) factor from the straight-wire field formula, giving L=(µ0/2π)n²r²l.
  • (4) Mistakes the 1/2 from the energy formula U=1/2 LI² as part of L itself, doubling the correct µ0πn²r²l to 2µ0πn²r²l.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 6 (Electromagnetic Induction), page 168

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Revise the lesson: Self Inductance

Question 6

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by s(t) = αt² − βt + γ, where α = 1 ms⁻², β = 6 ms⁻¹ and γ = 5 m. The average speed of the particle, in ms⁻¹ from t = 0 to t = 6 s is:

  1. (1)12
  2. (2)6
  3. (3)3
  4. (4)0
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

s(t) = t² − 6t + 5, v(t) = 2t − 6, which is zero at t = 3 s (particle reverses direction there). Distance covered = |s(3)−s(0)| + |s(6)−s(3)| = |−4−5| + |5−(−4)| = 9+9 = 18 m. Average speed = total distance/time = 18/6 = 3 ms⁻¹.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) 18 m of path length over 6 s gives 3 m/s; 12 m/s would need either a 72 m path or a 1.5 s interval, and no natural mis-step in this motion produces either, so 12 is simply not reachable here
  • (2) Confuses average speed with the instantaneous speed at t=6s: v(6)=2(6)−6=6 m/s, matching this option's value.
  • (4) wrongly uses net displacement s(6)−s(0)=0 (average velocity, not average speed)

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 2 (Motion in a Straight Line), page 21

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Revise the lesson: Average Speed Instantaneous Velocity

Question 7

Consider the following nuclear reaction ²³⁸U → ²³⁴Th + ⁴He Take masses of ²³⁸U, ²³⁴Th and ⁴He as 238.050 u, 234.043 u and 4.003 u, respectively. The Q value for the reaction, in keV, is: [Given: 1 u = 931.5 MeV c⁻²]

  1. (1)3726
  2. (2)3730
  3. (3)3736
  4. (4)3740
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Mass defect Δm = 238.050 − (234.043 + 4.003) = 0.004 u. Q = Δm·c² = 0.004 × 931.5 MeV = 3.726 MeV = 3726 keV.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Uses a conversion constant of 932.5 MeV/u instead of the given 931.5 MeV/u: 0.004×932.5=3.730 MeV=3730 keV.
  • (3) Uses a conversion constant of 934 MeV/u instead of 931.5 MeV/u: 0.004×934=3.736 MeV=3736 keV.
  • (4) Uses a conversion constant of 935 MeV/u instead of 931.5 MeV/u: 0.004×935=3.740 MeV=3740 keV.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 13 (Nuclei), page 311

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Revise the lesson: Mass Energy Relation

Question 8

Needs the figure

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated. If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time t, then variation of the photocurrent I and magnitude of the stopping potential |V| with time is best represented by:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Four pairs of I-t and |V|-t graphs are given as options; the correct pair shows I as a straight declining line to zero and |V| as a constant horizontal line.

  1. (1)I decreases linearly with t while |V| stays constant
  2. (2)I decreases linearly with t while |V| decreases linearly with t
  3. (3)I stays constant while |V| decreases linearly with t
  4. (4)both I and |V| stay constant
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Power P ∝ (number of photons per second)×(energy per photon). The source and hence photon energy stay fixed, so P ∝ n; as P falls linearly, the photocurrent I (∝ n) falls linearly too. The stopping potential depends only on the photon energy (frequency), which is unchanged, so |V| stays constant.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Wrongly makes the stopping potential depend on beam intensity (power) rather than photon frequency alone, so |V| is shown falling as intensity falls.
  • (3) Wrongly treats photocurrent as intensity-independent, ignoring that current is proportional to photons arriving per second, which falls as power falls.
  • (4) ignores that current must fall as fewer photons arrive per second

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 11 (Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter), page 279

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Revise the lesson: Photoelectric Effect

Question 9

Needs the figure

Three identical capacitors, P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V, as shown in the figure. If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are UP and UT, respectively, then the ratio UP/UT is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: P and Q are in series with each other, and that series pair is in parallel with S, and this combination is connected across the battery V; the exact wiring (P–Q series branch parallel to S) must be read off the figure.

  1. (1)2/3
  2. (2)1/3
  3. (3)1/2
  4. (4)1/6
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

P and Q (each C) in series give C/2, so each carries voltage V/2 and UP = (1/2)C(V/2)² = CV²/8. S sees the full V, so US = (1/2)CV². Total UT = UP + UQ + US = CV²/8 + CV²/8 + CV²/2 = (3/4)CV². So UP/UT = (CV²/8)/((3/4)CV²) = 1/6.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Treats P as carrying the full battery voltage V (ignoring the series split with Q): UP=1/2 CV², so UP/UT=(1/2 CV²)/(3/4 CV²)=2/3.
  • (2) wrongly treats all three capacitors as identical parallel branches directly across V (ignoring that P and Q are in series), so each stores equal energy and UP/UT=1/3
  • (3) Forgets that Q (in series with P) also stores energy and treats the system as just P and S with equal energy each, giving UP/UT=UP/(UP+US)=1/2.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 2 (Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance), page 73

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Revise the lesson: Energy in Capacitor

Question 10

Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section as shown in the figure. The pressure difference of water between P and Q is 15 Nm⁻². The area of cross-section at P and Q are 40 cm² and 20 cm², respectively. The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in cm³s⁻¹, is: [Take density of water = 1000 kg m⁻³]

  1. (1)100
  2. (2)200
  3. (3)300
  4. (4)400
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

Continuity: 40VP = 20VQ ⇒ VQ = 2VP. Bernoulli (horizontal pipe): PP − PQ = (1/2)ρ(VQ² − VP²) ⇒ 15 = (1/2)(1000)(4VP² − VP²) = 1500VP² ⇒ VP = 0.1 m/s. Rate = APVP = 40×10⁻⁴ m² × 0.1 m/s = 4×10⁻⁴ m³/s = 400 cm³/s.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) 400 cm3/s (=40 cm2 x 10 cm/s) is the consistent rate at both P and Q by continuity; 100 cm3/s is a quarter of this and does not follow from a single natural mis-step in the Bernoulli/continuity calculation
  • (2) pairs the area at Q (20 cm2) with the velocity found at P (10 cm/s) instead of matching area and velocity at the same point, giving 20x10=200 cm3/s
  • (3) 300 cm³/s is not reachable by one clean Bernoulli/continuity slip; it sits exactly midway between the correct 400 cm³/s and option 2's mismatched 200 cm³/s, suggesting an averaging error rather than a distinct calculation.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 9 (Mechanical Properties of Fluids), page 187

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Revise the lesson: Bernoulli's Principle

Question 11

Needs the figure

A current I0 flows through a metallic circular loop of radius r as shown in the figure. Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC. Magnitude of magnetic field at the centre O of the loop is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Current I0 enters at A and leaves at C, splitting into arc ABC (resistance R) and arc ADC (resistance 2R); the two arcs' magnetic field contributions at O are in opposite senses and must be read off the figure to be subtracted.

  1. (1)µ0I0/12r
  2. (2)µ0I0/4r
  3. (3)µ0I0/2r
  4. (4)µ0I0/2πr
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Current splits inversely with resistance: since R(ABC) = R(ADC)/2, the arc with smaller resistance (ABC) carries the larger current. With I(ABC) + I(ADC) = I0 and I(ABC).R = I(ADC).2R, we get I(ABC) = 2.I(ADC), so I(ADC) = I0/3 and I(ABC) = 2I0/3. Each semicircular arc contributes µ0.I(arc)/4r at O but in opposite senses, so B0 = µ0(2I0/3)/4r − µ0(I0/3)/4r = µ0I0/12r.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) uses the single-arc formula µ0I/4r with the full current I0 (forgetting to split the current between the two arcs), giving µ0I0/4r
  • (3) uses the full-loop centre-field formula µ0I0/(2r) directly with the total current, ignoring that the field here comes from two semicircular arcs carrying split currents
  • (4) uses the infinite straight-wire field formula µ0I0/(2πr) instead of the circular-arc formula appropriate to this loop

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 4 (Moving Charges and Magnetism), page 115

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Revise the lesson: Biot Savart Circular Loop

Question 12

Needs the figure

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used. The variation of the terminal velocity (v) with the ratio of density of spherical ball (σ) to density of the liquid (ρ), is best represented by:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Four v vs σ/ρ graphs are given; the correct one is a straight line of positive slope that crosses the σ/ρ axis exactly at σ/ρ=1 (zero terminal velocity there) and is negative/undefined for σ/ρ<1.

  1. (1)a straight line through σ/ρ=1 with positive slope, rising above the axis for σ/ρ>1
  2. (2)a curve concave up passing through the origin
  3. (3)a straight line with positive intercept at σ/ρ=1
  4. (4)a step function jumping at σ/ρ=1
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Terminal velocity vT = 2r²(σ−ρ)g/(9η) = [2r²ρg/(9η)](σ/ρ − 1), which is a straight line in σ/ρ of the form y = mx − m (m>0), crossing zero at σ/ρ = 1 — matching option 1.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) vT=(2r²ρg/9η)(σ/ρ−1) is linear in σ/ρ; a concave-up curve implies vT grows faster than linearly, which this formula rules out.
  • (3) The line must cross zero exactly at σ/ρ=1 (vT=0 when σ=ρ, per the (σ/ρ−1) factor); a positive intercept there contradicts the formula.
  • (4) shows a discontinuous jump, which contradicts the continuous linear formula

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 9 (Mechanical Properties of Fluids), page 192

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Revise the lesson: Terminal Velocity

Question 13

Two planets P1 and P2 with equal mass have radii R1 and R2, respectively, where R2 = R1/2. The escape speeds of P1 and P2 are v1 and v2, respectively. Then v2/v1 is:

  1. (1)1/√2
  2. (2)1
  3. (3)√2
  4. (4)2
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

Escape speed ve = √(2GM/R) ∝ 1/√R for fixed mass M. So v2/v1 = √(R1/R2) = √(R1/(R1/2)) = √2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Computes v1/v2=√(R2/R1)=1/√2 correctly but reports it as v2/v1, giving 1/√2 instead of √2.
  • (2) Wrongly assumes escape speed is independent of planet radius, so v2/v1=1.
  • (4) Uses R1/R2=2 directly without taking the square root required by ve∝1/√R, giving v2/v1=2.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 7 (Gravitation), page 136

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Revise the lesson: Escape Velocity

Question 14

In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to:

  1. (1)R^(1/2)
  2. (2)R^(3/2)
  3. (3)R²
  4. (4)R³
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

By Kepler's third law (law of periods), T² ∝ R³, so T ∝ R^(3/2).

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Would only hold if Kepler's third law read T²∝R instead of the correct T²∝R³; taking a square root of T²∝R gives T∝R^(1/2).
  • (3) misremembers Kepler's third law as T∝R² (mixing up which quantity is squared)
  • (4) takes T²∝R³ at face value as T∝R³, forgetting to take the square root

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 7 (Gravitation), page 129

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Revise the lesson: Kepler's Laws

Question 15

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents I and 2I, respectively, in the same direction. The wire A has uniform mass per unit length λ and lies on an insulated floor. The wire B is kept fixed at a height h above the floor. The minimum magnitude of h so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is: [g is the acceleration due to gravity and µ0 is the permeability of free space.]

  1. (1)µ0I²/(2πλg)
  2. (2)µ0I²/(πλg)
  3. (3)2µ0I²/(πλg)
  4. (4)4µ0I²/(πλg)
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

Force per length between the wires (attractive, since currents are parallel) is F = µ0(I)(2I)/(2πh) = µ0I²/(πh). Wire A stays on the floor as long as this upward pull does not exceed its weight per length λg: µ0I²/(πh) ≤ λg, so h ≥ µ0I²/(πλg).

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Omits the factor of 2 from wire B's current 2I (treating the force as if both wires carried I), halving the answer to µ0I²/(2πλg).
  • (3) Introduces a spurious extra factor of 2 in the force formula (e.g. µ0(I)(2I)/(πh) instead of /(2πh)), doubling the answer to 2µ0I²/(πλg).
  • (4) Compounds two factor-of-2 errors in the force formula, quadrupling the correct answer to 4µ0I²/(πλg).

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 4 (Moving Charges and Magnetism), page 122

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Revise the lesson: Force Between Parallel Currents

Question 16

Needs the figure

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of −3 V is reverse biased with a negative input voltage Vi = −5 V. The magnitude of voltage difference between point B and A is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Circuit shows the Zener diode from C to B in series with resistor R from B to A, the series combination connected across the 5 V source; B is the junction between the diode and the resistor.

  1. (1)3 V
  2. (2)2 V
  3. (3)1 V
  4. (4)0 V
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

Since |input| = 5 V exceeds the 3 V breakdown, the Zener clamps at 3 V (Vzener=3V across C–B), leaving the remaining 5−3 = 2 V dropped across the resistor R (from B to A). So |VBA| = 2 V.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) equals the Zener voltage itself, not the remaining drop across R
  • (3) Halves the correctly found 2 V drop across R (5−3=2 V), giving 1 V instead.
  • (4) Wrongly assumes that once the Zener clamps, no current flows through R at all, so it shows 0 V there instead of the actual 2 V drop.

NCERT: not stated on an NCERT page (see the explanation above)

Revise the lesson: Zener Diode

Question 17

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (γ = 5/3) decreases from 60 K to 50 K. The work done by the gas in the process is: (Take the universal gas constant as R = 8.3 J mol⁻¹ K⁻¹)

  1. (1)41.5 J
  2. (2)83 J
  3. (3)124.5 J
  4. (4)166 J
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

For an adiabatic process, W = nRΔT/(1−γ). With n=1, ΔT=−10K, γ=5/3: W = (1)(8.3)(−10)/(1−5/3) = −83/(−2/3) = 124.5 J.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) treats the monatomic gas as having only 1 degree of freedom (Cv=R/2) instead of 3 (Cv=3R/2), giving W=41.5 J
  • (2) forgets the 3/2 factor and uses Cv=R instead of Cv=3R/2, giving W=|nRΔT|=83 J
  • (4) uses Cv=2R instead of the correct Cv=3R/2, giving W=166 J

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 11 (Thermodynamics), page 235

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Revise the lesson: Isothermal Adiabatic Processes

Question 18

A ray of light with wavelength λ is incident on three different photoelectric cells namely 1, 2 and 3. The threshold wavelength of these photoelectric cells are λ1, λ2, and λ3, respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are V1, V2 and V3, respectively. The relation between λ and threshold wavelengths are λ1 < λ, λ2 > λ and λ3 >> λ. The correct option is:

  1. (1)V1 = 0, V2 < V3
  2. (2)V1 = 0, V2 > V3
  3. (3)V1 > V2, V3 = 0
  4. (4)V1 < V2, V3 = 0
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Work function φ = hc/λthreshold. Since λ1 < λ, φ1 > φ = hc/λ (incident photon energy), so no photoelectrons are ejected from cell 1: V1 = 0. Cells 2 and 3 have λ2, λ3 > λ so φ2, φ3 < φ and both eject electrons; since λ3 >> λ2, φ3 << φ2, so by φ = φ0 + eV, cell 3 (smaller work function) gives a larger stopping potential: V3 > V2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Wrongly reverses the stopping-potential inequality: cell 3 has the largest excess photon energy (φ3<<φ2) and so the larger V, not cell 2.
  • (3) wrongly makes V3 zero, though cell 3 has the largest excess photon energy
  • (4) wrongly makes V1 nonzero when photon energy is below the threshold for cell 1

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 11 (Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter), page 279

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Revise the lesson: Photoelectric Effect

Question 19

A photon and an electron, each of 20 eV energy, move in free space. The ratio of linear momentum of electron pe to that of photon pPh, pe/pPh, is: [Take speed of light = 3 × 10⁸ ms⁻¹, charge of electron = −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and mass of electron = 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg]

  1. (1)2/450
  2. (2)1/250
  3. (3)225
  4. (4)275
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

For the electron, pe = √(2meEe). For the photon, pPh = EPh/c. So pe/pPh = √(2meEe)·c/EPh = c√(2me/EPh) (since Ee=EPh=20 eV = 20×1.6×10⁻¹⁹ J). Plugging in: pe/pPh = √(2×9×10⁻³¹/(20×1.6×10⁻¹⁹)) × 3×10⁸ = (3/4×10⁻⁶)×3×10⁸ = 225.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Inverts the correct ratio pe/pPh=225 to pPh/pe=1/225=2/450.
  • (2) is the reciprocal-scaled value, confusing photon and electron momentum roles
  • (4) 275 isn't reachable by a single clean slip here: the exact value is 225, and 275 needs an unexplained extra factor of about 1.22 that matches no unit-conversion or √2-type error.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 11 (Dual Nature of Radiation and Matter), page 283

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Revise the lesson: Matter Waves

Question 20

Which of the following measurements require 'index correction'?

  1. (1)Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge
  2. (2)Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
  3. (3)Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
  4. (4)Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

In the optical-bench focal-length experiment, the indices (pointer positions) on the bench scale usually do not coincide exactly with the actual position of the optical element/pin due to the finite size of the uprights, so an 'index correction' (correcting for this offset) must be applied to raw scale readings; this correction is specific to the optical-bench method among the listed experiments.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) meter bridge uses a balance-point/null method, not index correction
  • (2) the simple-pendulum experiment concerns timing and length measurement, not index correction
  • (4) the resonance-tube experiment needs an end correction for the tube's mouth, not an index correction

NCERT: not stated on an NCERT page (see the explanation above)

Revise the lesson: Experiment 13 Focal Length Parallax

Question 21

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius R, having uniform positive charge density ρ, as shown in the figure. The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distance 2R and 3R respectively, from the centre of the sphere. In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is ρR²/(nε0). The value of n is: (ε0 is the permittivity of vacuum)

  1. (1)2
  2. (2)6
  3. (3)9
  4. (4)18
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

Outside the sphere, the field/potential is as if the whole charge Q = ρ(4/3)πR³ were at the centre. Work done on unit charge W = q(VB − VA) = kQ(1/3R − 1/2R) = kQ(−1/6R). |W| = kQ/(6R) = [1/(4πε0)]·[ρ(4/3)πR³]/(6R) = ρR²/(18ε0), so n = 18.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Uses Q=4πρR³ (dropping the 1/3 from the sphere's volume) and keeps only the kQ/2R potential term (dropping kQ/3R), giving W=ρR²/(2ε0), so n=2.
  • (2) Uses Q=4πρR³ instead of the correct Q=(4/3)πρR³ (dropping the 1/3 sphere-volume factor), giving n=6.
  • (3) uses only the kQ/(3R) term (from VB) and ignores the kQ/(2R) term (from VA) in the potential difference, giving n=9

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 2 (Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance), page 52

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Revise the lesson: Field Spherical Shell Gauss

Question 22

Needs the figure

Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices 1, 1.25, and 1.5 respectively. The medium Q having a thickness of 5 cm is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure. An object O is placed at the centre of medium Q. If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth of O is h1. For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is h2. The value of |h1 − h2|, in cm, is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: O sits at the centre of the 5 cm thick medium Q, so it is 2.5 cm from the P–Q boundary and 2.5 cm from the Q–R boundary; these distances are read from the figure.

  1. (1)0
  2. (2)1
  3. (3)2
  4. (4)3
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

Apparent depth viewed from a rarer medium nP looking into denser Q: h1 = (nP/nQ)×2.5 = (1/1.25)×2.5 = 2 cm. Viewed from R into Q: h2 = (nR/nQ)×2.5 = (1.5/1.25)×2.5 = 3 cm. |h1 − h2| = 1 cm.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Wrongly assumes h1=h2 so the difference is 0; but h1=(1/1.25)×2.5=2 cm and h2=(1.5/1.25)×2.5=3 cm differ because the two refractive-index ratios aren't equal.
  • (3) uses the full 5 cm thickness for both h1 and h2 instead of the 2.5 cm half-distance, doubling the difference to 2 cm
  • (4) a 3 cm gap does not follow from a single natural slip here: using the full 5 cm thickness for both sides gives 2 cm (option 3), and swapping the two refractive-index ratios still leaves a 1 cm gap, so 3 cm is not reachable this way

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 9 (Ray Optics and Optical Instruments), page 229

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Revise the lesson: Refraction Light

Question 23

Needs the figure

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane. Two-point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point A(θ = π/2) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point B(θ = −π/2). During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum P of the system, as a function of θ?

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Four P–θ graphs are given as options; the correct one is a smooth arch that is zero at θ=π/2 and θ=−π/2 and maximum at θ=0.

  1. (1)P constant from π/2 to −π/2
  2. (2)P dips to a cusp at θ=0 then rises
  3. (3)P rises from 0, peaks near θ=0, and returns to 0
  4. (4)P falls linearly from π/2 to −π/2
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

By symmetry the x-components of the two particles' momenta cancel at every instant, leaving Pnet = 2mv·cos θ ĵ pointing along y. At θ=±π/2, cos θ=0 so Pnet=0, and it is maximum at θ=0. So the magnitude of P starts at 0, rises to a peak, and returns to 0 — a smooth arch, matching option 3.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) wrongly keeps momentum constant despite the changing angle between the two velocity vectors
  • (2) wrongly shows momentum vanishing in the middle instead of at the endpoints
  • (4) Wrongly shows P falling linearly and monotonically from θ=π/2 to −π/2, but Pnet=2mv·cosθ is symmetric and even in θ, peaking at θ=0 rather than declining straight through it.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 6 (System of Particles and Rotational Motion), page 100

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Revise the lesson: Momentum

Question 24

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is increased by a small amount ΔT. If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is α, the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is:

  1. (1)2πR³αΔT
  2. (2)3πR³αΔT
  3. (3)4πR³αΔT
  4. (4)6πR³αΔT
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

For small changes, ΔR/R = αΔT. Since V = (4/3)πR³, ΔV/V = 3ΔR/R = 3αΔT, so ΔV = 3αΔT×(4/3)πR³ = 4πR³αΔT.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Uses the hemisphere volume formula (2/3)πR³ instead of the sphere's (4/3)πR³, then correctly applies ΔV=3αΔT×V, giving 2πR³αΔT.
  • (2) drops the factor of 4/3 from the volume formula before multiplying by 3
  • (4) uses an incorrect sphere volume formula V=2πR³ instead of (4/3)πR³ before applying the correct 3αΔT scaling, giving 6πR³αΔT

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 10 (Thermal Properties of Matter), page 205

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Revise the lesson: Heat Temperature Thermal Expansion

Question 25

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density ρ1. If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T. If the same cork floats in another liquid of density ρ2, then the similar oscillation has time period 2T. The value of ρ2/ρ1 is:

  1. (1)4
  2. (2)2
  3. (3)1/2
  4. (4)1/4
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

For a floating cylinder bobbing vertically, the restoring force per unit displacement gives T = 2π√(ρsl/(ρliquid·g)), i.e. T ∝ 1/√ρliquid for a fixed cork. So T1/T2 = √(ρ2/ρ1); with T2 = 2T1, (1/2) = √(ρ2/ρ1), giving ρ2/ρ1 = 1/4.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Inverts the correct ratio ρ2/ρ1=1/4 to ρ1/ρ2, reporting 4 instead.
  • (2) Wrongly takes T∝ρliquid (direct proportionality) instead of T∝1/√ρliquid; then T2=2T1 directly gives ρ2/ρ1=2.
  • (3) is the square root of the correct ratio instead of the ratio itself

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 13 (Oscillations), page 277

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Revise the lesson: Restoring Force Constant

Question 26

Dropped by NTA

One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to 1 mm and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is 10. When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that 4th Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale. If this Vernier calliper measures the length of the wire to be 1 cm, the actual length of the wire is:

  1. (1)0.60 cm
  2. (2)0.96 cm
  3. (3)1.00 cm
  4. (4)1.04 cm
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Dropped by NTA (question withdrawn in the final key)

What the question was testing

Least count = 1 mm/10 = 0.01 cm. The Vernier scale shifting left of zero with the 4th division coinciding means a negative zero error of −(10−4)×0.01 = −0.06 cm, so the zero correction is +0.06 cm. The corrected length = measured reading + zero correction = 1 + 0.06 = 1.06 cm, which is not among the four listed options, so NTA withdrew this question (no option is correct).

About the options
  • (1) confuses the 0.4 mm zero-error magnitude (4 divisions x 0.1 mm) with 0.4 cm and subtracts it directly, giving 1 - 0.4 = 0.60 cm
  • (2) computes the zero-error magnitude as 4x0.01=0.04 cm directly (instead of (10-4)x0.01=0.06 cm) and subtracts it, giving 1 - 0.04 = 0.96 cm
  • (3) Ignores the zero-error correction entirely and reports the raw vernier reading of 1.00 cm unchanged.
  • (4) adds the wrong zero-error magnitude 4x0.01=0.04 cm (instead of the correct (10-4)x0.01=0.06 cm) to the reading, giving 1.04 cm

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 1 (Units and Measurement), page 11

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Revise the lesson: Experiment 01 Vernier Calipers

Question 27

Needs the figure

A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius r < R and mass m < M. Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal. The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is IA and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is IB. The difference IA − IB is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Need the two indicated vertical axes: one through the centre of sphere A (case 1) and one through the centre of sphere B (case 2), with the spheres' centres separated by (R+r), as drawn in the figure.

  1. (1)(M − m)(R + r)²
  2. (2)(m − M)(R + r)²
  3. (3)(m − M)(R − r)²
  4. (4)0
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

IA = (2/5)MR² + (2/5)mr² + m(R+r)² [B parallel-axis shifted by R+r]. IB = (2/5)MR² + M(R+r)² + (2/5)mr² [A parallel-axis shifted by R+r]. Subtracting, the (2/5)MR² and (2/5)mr² terms cancel, leaving IA − IB = m(R+r)² − M(R+r)² = (m−M)(R+r)².

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Keeps the parallel-axis terms right but flips the sign of the mass difference, giving IA−IB=(M−m)(R+r)² instead of the correct (m−M)(R+r)².
  • (3) Uses the centre separation (R−r) instead of the correct (R+r), the actual distance between the two sphere centres.
  • (4) Wrongly assumes IA and IB are equal, ignoring that shifting the axis by (R+r) changes each sphere's parallel-axis term differently.

NCERT: not stated on an NCERT page (see the explanation above)

Revise the lesson: Parallel Perpendicular Axes Theorems

Question 28

Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension. The mass of the particle is m kg and the spring constant is k Nm⁻¹. At a given instant, the extension of the spring is x-meter and the speed of the particle is v ms⁻¹. On the x-v plane, if the graph of v as a function of x is a circle, then the correct option is:

  1. (1)k = 1/m
  2. (2)k = m
  3. (3)k = m²
  4. (4)k = √m
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

For SHM, v = ω√(A²−x²), so v² + ω²x² = ω²A², i.e. (v²/ω²) + x² = A², an ellipse in (x,v). This becomes a circle only when the x and v axes have equal scale factor, i.e. when 1/ω² = 1, so ω²=1. Since ω²=k/m, this gives k = m.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Solves k/m=1 as k=1/m instead of correctly cross-multiplying to k=m, a division-vs-multiplication slip.
  • (3) Squares the correctly found relation k=m into k=m², rather than leaving it linear.
  • (4) Takes an unjustified square root of the correct relation k=m, giving k=√m.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 13 (Oscillations), page 266

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Revise the lesson: SHM Equation

Question 29

Needs the figure

The lens combination as shown in the figure, consists of two lenses, L1 and L2, of the focal lengths +10 cm and −10 cm, respectively. The position of the image formed is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: The object O is 30 cm to the left of convex lens L1, and L2 is 3 cm to the right of L1; these separations are only given in the figure.

  1. (1)20 cm to the left of the concave lens
  2. (2)60 cm to the left of the concave lens
  3. (3)30 cm to the right of the concave lens
  4. (4)60 cm to the right of the concave lens
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

For L1 (u=−30cm, f=+10cm): 1/v − 1/(−30) = 1/10 ⇒ 1/v = 1/10 − 1/30 = 2/30 ⇒ v=+15 cm, i.e. 15 cm to the right of L1, which is 15−3=12 cm to the right of L2 — so u' for L2 is +12 cm. For L2 (u'=+12cm, f'=−10cm): 1/v' = 1/f' + 1/u' = −1/10 + 1/12 = −1/60 ⇒ v'=−60 cm. So the final image is 60 cm to the left of the concave lens L2.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) comes from an arithmetic slip in combining the two lens equations
  • (3) forgetting the 3 cm gap between the lenses (using u'=15 cm for L2 instead of the correct 12 cm) gives a 30 cm magnitude, but that slip still places the image on the left, not the right, so this option's side label does not match any single natural slip
  • (4) Gets the correct 60 cm magnitude from the two-lens calculation but places the final image on the wrong side (right instead of left) of lens L2.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 9 (Ray Optics and Optical Instruments), page 237

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Revise the lesson: Lenses in Contact

Question 30

An ac voltage V = 220 sin(2 × 10³t) Volt is applied to a series LCR circuit. Then the current amplitude in this circuit is: (Given: L = 10 mH, C = 25 µF, R = 100 Ω)

  1. (1)2.2 A
  2. (2)5.5 A
  3. (3)11.0 A
  4. (4)22.0 A
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

ω = 2×10³ rad/s. XL = ωL = 2×10³×10×10⁻³ = 20 Ω. XC = 1/(ωC) = 1/(2×10³×25×10⁻⁶) = 20 Ω. Since XL = XC, the circuit is at resonance, Z = R = 100 Ω. Current amplitude i0 = V0/Z = 220/100 = 2.2 A.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) comes from using Z=40Ω (adding XL and XC) instead of resonance
  • (3) Uses Z=20 Ω (one reactance alone, since XL=XC=20 Ω) instead of the resonant Z=R=100 Ω, giving i0=220/20=11.0 A.
  • (4) Misplaces a decimal point in i0=220/100=2.2 A, reporting 22.0 A — tenfold too large.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 7 (Alternating Current), page 189

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Revise the lesson: Resonance LCR

Question 31

A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre O. Its angular momentum is LA and LB computed about points A and B, respectively, with OB = 2 × OA. The value of LA/LB is:

  1. (1)1/4
  2. (2)1/2
  3. (3)1
  4. (4)2
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

For a body spinning about a fixed axis through its centre of mass, angular momentum about any point on that same rotation axis is L = r×P + Icmω; since the centre of mass is not translating, P=0 for all such points, so L = Icmω regardless of which point A or B (both lying on the same vertical axis) is used. Hence LA = LB, so LA/LB = 1.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Wrongly assumes L scales as 1/(distance from O)², computing LA/LB=(OA/OB)²=(1/2)²=1/4.
  • (2) Wrongly assumes L scales as 1/(distance from O), computing LA/LB=OA/OB=1/2.
  • (4) Wrongly assumes L scales directly with distance from O but takes the ratio as OB/OA=2 instead of OA/OB, giving LA/LB=2.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 6 (System of Particles and Rotational Motion), page 107

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Revise the lesson: Angular Momentum

Question 32

Needs the figure

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the x-y plane. There is a constant magnetic field in the z direction. The area of the loop varies with time t, as A = A0(1 + sin t) in appropriate units. The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power P dissipated in the loop as a function of time is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Four qualitative P(t) plots are given; the correct one starts at a finite value, falls to a cusp (zero) partway through, then rises again, repeating with period π.

  1. (1)two full symmetric humps touching zero at t=0,π,2π
  2. (2)a curve starting high, dipping to a cusp near t=π/2, then rising again
  3. (3)P constant
  4. (4)P rising monotonically
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

φ = BA0(1+sin t), so ε = −dφ/dt = −BA0 cos t, and induced current I = −BA0 cos t/R. Power P = I²R = (B²A0²/R)cos²t. Since cos²t has period π and touches zero whenever t = π/2, 3π/2,..., P(t) is a series of arches meeting the axis with cusps — matching option 2's dip-and-rise shape rather than a smooth periodic hump pattern touching zero at multiples of π (that would be sin²t behaviour).

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) matches a sin²t-type pattern (zeros at 0, π, 2π) rather than the cos²t pattern here
  • (3) Ignores that induced current I=−BA0cos t/R is time-dependent, so P=I²R cannot stay constant.
  • (4) ignores that P is bounded and periodic, not monotonically increasing

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 6 (Electromagnetic Induction), page 168

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Revise the lesson: Induced EMF Current

Question 33

Needs the figure

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere. Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are EA, EB, EC, respectively. The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere. The correct option is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: A is a point inside the cavity itself (near Q), while B and C are outside the conductor on opposite sides at equal distance from the sphere's centre; this geometry (A inside cavity vs B, C outside) is only clear from the figure.

  1. (1)EA = 0, EB = EC
  2. (2)EA ≠ 0, EB = EC
  3. (3)EA = 0, EB > EC
  4. (4)EA ≠ 0, EB < EC
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (2)

Why this is the answer

Point A lies inside the cavity where the point charge Q itself produces a nonzero field, so EA ≠ 0 (the field inside a conductor's bulk is zero, but the cavity is not conductor material). The induced charge distributes uniformly on the outer surface (electrostatic shielding makes the outside field depend only on total enclosed charge and distance from the centre), so since B and C are equidistant from the centre, EB = EC.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) wrongly claims EA=0, but the cavity interior is not conductor bulk so the field there need not vanish
  • (3) wrongly claims the exterior fields differ despite equal distances
  • (4) is inconsistent both in the EA claim and the EB, EC inequality

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 2 (Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance), page 63

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Revise the lesson: Field Spherical Shell Gauss

Question 34

Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius R and total charge +Q. A point charge −q (q<<Q) with mass m is released from rest at a distance of 3R from the centre of the charged sphere. When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is: (ε0 is the permittivity of vacuum, neglect gravitational forces).

  1. (1)√(3Qq/(4πε0mR))
  2. (2)√(2Qq/(3πε0mR))
  3. (3)√(Qq/(3πε0mR))
  4. (4)√(Qq/(4πε0mR))
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

Using energy conservation with the exterior potential of the sphere V=kQ/r: (1/2)mv² = q[kQ/R − kQ/(3R)] = kQq(2/3)/R. So v² = (4kQq)/(3Rm) = 4Qq/(3×4πε0×Rm) = Qq/(3πε0mR), giving v = √(Qq/(3πε0mR)).

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Inverts the potential-difference fraction from 2/(3R) to 3/(2R) (flipping numerator and denominator), giving v²=3Qq/(4πε0mR) instead of Qq/(3πε0mR).
  • (2) Adds the two potential terms instead of subtracting (1/R+1/3R=4/(3R) instead of 1/R−1/3R=2/(3R)), doubling the coefficient to give √(2Qq/(3πε0mR)).
  • (4) Computes 1/R−1/(3R) by subtracting the denominators (3R−R=2R) instead of the fractions, getting 1/(2R) instead of 2/(3R), giving Qq/(4πε0mR).

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 2 (Electrostatic Potential and Capacitance), page 48

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Revise the lesson: Electric Potential

Question 35

Needs the figure

In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered α-particles N(θ) is plotted as a function of scattering angle θ. Which of the following options represents the correct plot?

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Four log-scale N(θ) vs θ graphs (10 to 10⁷) are given; the correct one falls steeply and monotonically from a high value near θ=0 to a low value near θ=180°.

  1. (1)N(θ) rising linearly with θ
  2. (2)N(θ) roughly constant then falling gently
  3. (3)N(θ) falling steeply and monotonically from θ=0
  4. (4)N(θ) rising to a broad plateau around θ=90° then falling
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

The Rutherford scattering formula gives N(θ) ∝ 1/sin⁴(θ/2), which is very large for small θ and decreases monotonically and steeply as θ increases toward 180° — matching a steadily falling curve.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Shows N(θ) rising with θ, the opposite of the actual 1/sin⁴(θ/2) trend which is largest at small θ.
  • (2) Wrongly flattens the large-angle scattering probability; N(θ)∝1/sin⁴(θ/2) keeps falling steeply, never levelling off.
  • (4) Wrongly shows a peak away from θ=0; N(θ)∝1/sin⁴(θ/2) is largest at θ=0 and falls monotonically from there.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 12 (Atoms), page 292

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Revise the lesson: Alpha Scattering

Question 36

Needs the figure

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors. One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, +α, while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient, −α, as shown in the figure. The current through these circuits are denoted by IA and IB. At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is R0. As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: Circuit A has the two resistors R0(1−αΔT) and R0(1+αΔT) in series; circuit B has them in parallel — this series-vs-parallel arrangement is only shown in the figure.

  1. (1)IA remains constant while IB increases
  2. (2)IA decreases while IB increases
  3. (3)IA increases while IB decreases
  4. (4)Both IA and IB remain constant
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Circuit A (series): Req = R0(1−αΔT) + R0(1+αΔT) = 2R0, independent of ΔT, so IA = V/(2R0) stays constant. Circuit B (parallel): Req = R0(1−α²ΔT²)/2, which decreases as ΔT increases, so IB = V/Req increases with temperature.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Wrongly assumes the series combination's resistance changes with ΔT, when the +α and −α terms exactly cancel: Req=R0(1−αΔT)+R0(1+αΔT)=2R0.
  • (3) Reverses both trends: IA is actually constant (series Req is temperature-independent) and IB actually increases (parallel Req decreases with ΔT).
  • (4) Wrongly claims IB is unaffected by ΔT, but the parallel Req=R0(1−α²ΔT²)/2 decreases as ΔT grows, so IB=V/Req increases.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 3 (Current Electricity), page 103

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Revise the lesson: Temperature Dependence Resistance

Question 37

Consider that σs, kB, b represents Stefan-Boltzmann constant, Boltzmann constant and Wien's displacement law constant, respectively. The dimension of σs·kB⁻¹·b is

  1. (1)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²]
  2. (2)[L⁻¹K⁻²]
  3. (3)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻³]
  4. (4)[L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻⁴]
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

σs = [MT⁻³K⁻⁴], kB = [ML²T⁻²K⁻¹], b = [LK]. So σs·kB⁻¹·b = [MT⁻³K⁻⁴]·[M⁻¹L⁻²T²K]·[LK] = [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²].

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Drops the T⁻¹ factor from σs=[MT⁻³K⁻⁴], giving [L⁻¹K⁻²] instead of [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²].
  • (3) Carries one extra power of K⁻¹ beyond the correct exponent, giving [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻³] instead of [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²].
  • (4) Carries two extra powers of K⁻¹ beyond the correct exponent, giving [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻⁴] instead of [L⁻¹T⁻¹K⁻²].

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 10 (Thermal Properties of Matter), page 218

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Revise the lesson: Heat Transfer

Question 38

Two answers accepted

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, εr = 9, has the electric field, Ex = E0 sin (kz – 2π × 10⁶t) Vm⁻¹ where E0 is the amplitude and k is the wave vector. Among the following options, the incorrect choice is

  1. (1)The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 10⁸ ms⁻¹
  2. (2)The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is 300 m
  3. (3)The magnetic field is given by the relation By = (B0/v) sin(kz − 2π×10⁶t) where v is the speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium
  4. (4)The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along +z
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Options (2) and (3), both accepted by NTA

Why this is the answer

Speed in medium vm = c/√εr = (3×10⁸)/3 = 10⁸ m/s (option 1 correct). Wavelength λm = vm/f0 = 10⁸/(10⁶) = 100 m, not 300 m, so option 2 is incorrect. Option 3 as written uses B0 (a magnetic-field amplitude symbol undefined in the question) divided by v instead of E0/v — the relation should read By = (E0/v)sin(...), so as literally stated option 3 is also incorrect due to this symbol error. Option 4 correctly reads +z propagation from the (kz − ωt) phase.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) is a true statement, so it is not the intended 'incorrect' choice
  • (4) is a true statement about propagation direction, so it is not the intended 'incorrect' choice

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 8 (Electromagnetic Waves), page 212

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Revise the lesson: EM Waves Characteristics

Question 39

Needs the figure

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure. The total heat supplied to the gas is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: The P-V diagram is a rectangle a(2,300)→b(5,300)→c(5,100)→d(2,100)→a; the numeric pressures (300, 100 N/m²) and volumes (2, 5 m³) are given only on the figure's axes.

  1. (1)400 J
  2. (2)500 J
  3. (3)600 J
  4. (4)800 J
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

For a full cycle, ΔU = 0, so net heat supplied equals net work done, which equals the area enclosed by the rectangle: ΔQ = W = (300−100)×(5−2) = 200×3 = 600 J.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) uses ΔV=2 m3 (the volume at state a) as the box width instead of the correct 5-2=3 m3, giving 200x2=400 J
  • (2) uses the lower pressure alone (100 N/m2) times the full volume 5 m3, instead of ΔP x ΔV, giving 500 J
  • (4) misreads the volume axis as spanning 1 to 5 m3 (width 4) instead of 2 to 5 m3 (width 3), giving 200x4=800 J

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 11 (Thermodynamics), page 235

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Revise the lesson: Isothermal Adiabatic Processes

Question 40

Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity √25.6 × 10⁵ ms⁻¹. The radius of the orbit is x × 10⁻⁹ m. The value of x is: [Take the mass of electron to the 9 × 10⁻³¹ kg, charge of electron = −1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C and 1/(4πε0) = 9 × 10⁹ Nm²C⁻²]

  1. (1)4
  2. (2)3
  3. (3)2
  4. (4)1
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (4)

Why this is the answer

Setting Coulomb force equal to centripetal force: ke²/r² = mv²/r, so r = ke²/(mv²) = (9×10⁹×(1.6×10⁻¹⁹)²)/(9×10⁻³¹×25.6×10¹⁰) = (2.304×10⁻²⁸)/(2.304×10⁻¹⁹) = 1×10⁻⁹ m, so x = 1.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) comes from an arithmetic slip in the numerator/denominator division
  • (2) 3×10⁻⁹ m isn't reachable by a single clean slip: the calculation reduces exactly to 2.304×10⁻²⁸/2.304×10⁻¹⁹=1×10⁻⁹ m, and no natural rounding of the 9, 1.6, or 25.6 factors produces a mantissa of 3.
  • (3) 2×10⁻⁹ m likewise doesn't fall out of any single natural slip in this exact 2.304/2.304=1 calculation.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 12 (Atoms), page 299

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Revise the lesson: Bohr Model

Question 41

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius 50 m, which is banked at an angle θ. If the car travels at a speed 10 ms⁻¹, then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum. Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be 10 ms⁻², the value of θ is:

  1. (1)tan⁻¹(1/5)
  2. (2)tan⁻¹(2/5)
  3. (3)tan⁻¹(√3/2)
  4. (4)tan⁻¹(2√3)
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Minimum wear (no reliance on friction) occurs at the design speed where tan θ = v²/(rg) = (10×10)/(50×10) = 1/5, so θ = tan⁻¹(1/5).

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Uses r=25 m instead of the given 50 m: tanθ=100/(25×10)=2/5, matching this option.
  • (3) √3/2≈0.866 isn't reachable from tanθ=v²/(rg)=1/5 by any single natural slip; it looks like an unrelated trig-identity distractor (sin60°/cos30°-shaped).
  • (4) 2√3≈3.46 likewise doesn't follow from tanθ=v²/(rg)=1/5 through any identifiable slip with this problem's numbers (v=10, r=50, g=10).

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 4 (Laws of Motion), page 63

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Revise the lesson: Vehicle Banked Road

Question 42

Needs the figure

Three identical p-n junction diodes D1, D2, and D3 are connected across a battery as shown in the figure. If the width of the depletion regions of D1, D2 and D3 are W1, W2 and W3, respectively, then the correct option is:

This question depends on a figure in the question paper, which we do not redraw. What the figure shows: The circuit shows D1 forward biased, D3 reverse biased, and D2 with no bias across it (its two terminals are shorted together by the wiring), as drawn in the figure.

  1. (1)W1 > W2 > W3
  2. (2)W3 = W1 > W2
  3. (3)W3 > W2 > W1
  4. (4)W2 > W1 = W3
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

D1 is forward biased, so its depletion region narrows (W1 minimum). D3 is reverse biased, so its depletion region widens (W3 maximum). D2 carries no biasing voltage across it, so its depletion region stays at the unbiased (intermediate) width. Hence W3 > W2 > W1.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) Lists W1>W2>W3, reversing the correct order: forward-biased D1 should have the narrowest depletion region, not the widest.
  • (2) Wrongly equates the forward-biased D1's width with the reverse-biased D3's width, though opposite biasing must narrow one and widen the other.
  • (4) Wrongly claims the unbiased D2 has the largest depletion region; reverse bias, not zero bias, produces the widest depletion region.

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 14 (Semiconductor Electronics: Materials, Devices and Simple Circuits), page 333

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Revise the lesson: Semiconductor Diode I–V

Question 43

The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications. P. Microwave / Q. UV rays / R. Gamma rays / S. Radio wave I. For purifying the water / II. For warming the food / III. For AM and FM communication systems / IV. For treating the Cancer cells The correct option is:

  1. (1)P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV
  2. (2)P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
  3. (3)P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
  4. (4)P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

Microwaves are used for warming food (P-II); UV rays for purifying water (Q-I, via germicidal action); gamma rays for treating cancer cells (R-IV, radiotherapy); radio waves for AM/FM communication (S-III). This gives P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) assigns microwave to water purification and UV to warming, both swapped
  • (2) Cyclically shifts three assignments — microwave to water purification, UV to cancer treatment, gamma to warming food — leaving only radio wave/communication correctly paired.
  • (4) reverses the UV and radio-wave assignments relative to the correct pairing

NCERT: NCERT Class 12 Physics, Chapter 8 (Electromagnetic Waves), page 209

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Revise the lesson: EM Spectrum

Question 44

Bob B of mass m at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length 10 m, as shown in the figure. Point mass A of mass m travelling horizontally with speed 10 ms⁻¹ hits bob B elastically. The bob B rises h meter after the collision. Taking the acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms⁻² and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of h is:

  1. (1)8
  2. (2)7
  3. (3)5
  4. (4)2.5
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (3)

Why this is the answer

In an elastic collision between two equal masses where one is initially at rest, the velocities are exchanged: A stops and B moves off with the full 10 ms⁻¹. Using energy conservation as B swings up, (1/2)mv² = mgh, so h = v²/(2g) = 100/20 = 5 m.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (1) 8 m isn't reachable by a single natural slip: with v0=10 m/s and g=10 m/s², clean errors here land on multiples of 2.5 m (2.5, 5, 10); 8 m fits none of these.
  • (2) 7 m likewise isn't a multiple of the 2.5 m family that natural slips in this v0=10 m/s, g=10 m/s² calculation produce.
  • (4) forgets the factor of 2 in the energy-conservation formula, using h=v²/(4g) instead of v²/(2g), giving 100/40=2.5 m

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 5 (Work, Energy and Power), page 84

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Revise the lesson: Elastic Collision 1D

Question 45

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules. Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and f number of vibrational modes. If the ratio of heat capacities CP/CV of the gas is 8/7, then the value of f is:

  1. (1)4
  2. (2)3
  3. (3)2
  4. (4)1
Show answer and explanation

Answer (NTA final key): Option (1)

Why this is the answer

Each vibrational mode contributes 1 kBT to internal energy (unlike translational/rotational which contribute (1/2)kBT each). Total U per mole = (3/2 + 3/2 + f)RT = (3+f)RT, so CV = (3+f)R and CP = CV+R = (4+f)R. Given CP/CV = (4+f)/(3+f) = 8/7 ⇒ 7(4+f) = 8(3+f) ⇒ 28+7f = 24+8f ⇒ f = 4.

Why the other options are wrong
  • (2) Check by substituting: f = 3 gives C_V = 6R and C_P = 7R, so γ = 7/6, not 8/7. Counting each vibrational mode as ½k_BT (instead of k_BT) is the usual slip here, and it gives f = 8, not 3.
  • (3) Substituting f = 2 gives C_V = 5R and C_P = 6R, so γ = 6/5, which is larger than 8/7: too few modes make γ too big.
  • (4) Substituting f = 1 gives C_V = 4R and C_P = 5R, so γ = 5/4. Fewer vibrational modes raise γ; only f = 4 brings it down to 8/7.

NCERT: NCERT Class 11 Physics, Chapter 12 (Kinetic Theory), page 252

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Revise the lesson: Degrees of Freedom